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does celibacy lead to perversion & why don’t protestants have that vow?
No, celibacy will not cause a person to become perverted. Porn does however and I find it interesting that society is so accepting toward promoting open and “free” expression of sexuality and will turn and look at Priests as being odd.does celibacy lead to perversion & why don’t protestants have that vow?
“But he said to me, “My grace is sufficient for you, for my power is made perfect in weakness.” Therefore I will boast all the more gladly about my weaknesses, so that Christ’s power may rest on me.” (2 Corinthians 12:9)does celibacy lead to perversion
“For there are eunuchs who were born that way from their mother’s womb; and there are eunuchs who were made eunuchs by men; and there are also eunuchs who made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to accept this, let him accept it.” (Matthew 19:12)why don’t protestants have that vow?
Remenber: Jesus, Mary, St Paul, John Paul II, Pius XII etc, etc, were all celibate. As a whole celibacy in my op. does not lead to perversion.does celibacy lead to perversion & why don’t protestants have that vow?
I think that the OP was asking does celibacy lead to perversion; not whether or not sin is present in all men. I think that the answer to that is no; celibacy does not cause perversion.This thread poses a question that is predatory. It’s a rhetorical question, and if we knew the answer, we wouldn’t have to ask the question. We’d know.
“perversion” is nineteenth century term of prejudice and it really doesn’t explain anything.
All sin is perversion, and what does labelling it accomplish? Everyone is perverse, in one way or another. Christ came to turn all people towards God, to give them the chance for salvation.
Jesus told us to forgive others, and that is how God will forgive us, as we forgive others.
For paragraph one - only in the Latin rite of the Church must priests be celibate.If one wants to become a Catholic priest, he is required to be celibate. Requiring celibate clergy runs contrary to scripture and is asking for trouble.
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behavior, hospitable, able to teach; not given to wine, not violent, not greedy for money, but gentle, not quarrelsome, not covetous; one who rules his own house well, having his children in submission with all reverence (for if a man does not know how to rule his own house, how will he take care of the church of God?); not a novice, lest being puffed up with pride he fall into the same condemnation as the devil." 1 Timothy 3:2-6
Does celibacy lead to perversion? Not always. The more recent problems in the Catholic Church started when homosexuals started to get past the screening process and entered the seminaries many decades ago. These homosexuals ascended through the ranks and even began actively recruiting other homosexuals to run seminaries. These seminaries excluded straight men seeking a vocation ini the priesthood.
When you say it “runs contrary to scripture” are you saying that it goes against scripture? St. Paul was single (and celibate). Jesus Christ was unmarried (and celiabte). Jesus is High Priest according to the Order of Melchizedek is He not? (Hebrews 7).If one wants to become a Catholic priest, he is required to be celibate. Requiring celibate clergy runs contrary to scripture and is asking for trouble.
As long as we’re looking in Timothy turn to chapter 5 verses 9-16. Here St. Paul is speaking of an order of widows pledged not to remarry; in particular advising: “But refuse to enroll younger widows; for when they grow wanton against Christ they desire to marry, and so they incur condemnation for having violated their first pledge.” These Sisters in Christ sound kind of like nuns maybe? Of course I realize we are talking about the Priesthood here but I’m just pointing out that the concept of voluntarily taking a vow of celibacy is biblical. Especially when one does so for the sake of the Kingdom of God (See Matthew 19)"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behavior, hospitable, able to teach; not given to wine, not violent, not greedy for money, but gentle, not quarrelsome, not covetous; one who rules his own house well, having his children in submission with all reverence (for if a man does not know how to rule his own house, how will he take care of the church of God?); not a novice, lest being puffed up with pride he fall into the same condemnation as the devil." 1 Timothy 3:2-6
That’s your opinion. My opinion is that it NEVER leads to perversion. It is NEVER the cause of perversion. If perversion is present, celibacy will no more be the cause of the condition than the fact that the person brushes his teeth side-to-side rather than up and down. If you have some sort of unbias proof otherwise, please cite it.Does celibacy lead to perversion? Not always.
(Edited) Please cite proof.The more recent problems in the Catholic Church started when homosexuals started to get past the screening process and entered the seminaries many decades ago. These homosexuals ascended through the ranks and even began actively recruiting other homosexuals to run seminaries. These seminaries excluded straight men seeking a vocation ini the priesthood.
No more than marriage leads to adultery. :coffeeread:does celibacy lead to perversion & why don’t protestants have that vow?
Thanks for the great example of why the Bible shouldn’t be used in a vacuum and requires a little education and context to be understood properly. Studied history at all? Does the word “Polygamy” ring a bell? St. Paul was writing to Timothy, who, like Paul himself, worked primarily with gentile converts. Many of these gentiles were polygamists prior to their conversion. I say Paul’s words mean you can’t make a polygamist a bishop, nor a man who had kids that turned out to be rotten.If one wants to become a Catholic priest, he is required to be celibate. Requiring celibate clergy runs contrary to scripture and is asking for trouble.
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behavior, hospitable, able to teach; not given to wine, not violent, not greedy for money, but gentle, not quarrelsome, not covetous; one who rules his own house well, having his children in submission with all reverence (for if a man does not know how to rule his own house, how will he take care of the church of God?); not a novice, lest being puffed up with pride he fall into the same condemnation as the devil." 1 Timothy 3:2-6
“Now the overseer must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money. He must manage his own family well and see that his children obey him with proper respect. If anyone does not know how to manage his own family, how can he take care of God’s church?” (1 Timothy 3:2-5)Thanks for the great example of why the Bible shouldn’t be used in a vacuum and requires a little education and context to be understood properly. Studied history at all? Does the word “Polygamy” ring a bell? St. Paul was writing to Timothy, who, like Paul himself, worked primarily with gentile converts. Many of these gentiles were polygamists prior to their conversion. I say Paul’s words mean you can’t make a polygamist a bishop, nor a man who had kids that turned out to be rotten.
You say Paul’s words mean that a man can’t be a bishop unless he’s married. WHOOPS! You’'ve got a teesny problem. Paul is an apostle. What’s an apostle? A special version of a bishop. Where’s Paul’s wife?(she doesn’t exist.) I guess Scripture doesn’t require a bishop to have a wife after all, does it?
Requiring celibacy of the clergy is not a command of God rather it comes from the teachings of men.
There are verses that show the benefit of celibacy. The Church using the authority given her by God, not man, decided it best in the Latin rite for priests to be celibate. So?
And where pray tell is the contents page to the Bible in the Bible - it’s not there - it had to come from somewhere outside the Bible.
God never said in the Bible, compile a New Testament. The Church in her wisdom thought it a good idea to do so - and she did at the Council of Rome in 382 AD.
Yes scripture speaks of benefits to being free from family obligations in order to serve the Kingdom of God. But forbidding marriage is also addressed. Scripture calls it a doctrine of demons:There are verses that show the benefit of celibacy. The Church using the authority given her by God, not man, decided it best in the Latin rite for priests to be celibate. So?