B
belorg
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Well, actually, the last three words should be omitted.Understood.![]()
So, my position is :
No, based on arguments and reasoning I see no reason to conclude there is any kind of personal creator.
Well, actually, the last three words should be omitted.Understood.![]()
I agree with Belorg. The burden of proof is always on the person making the claim. Can you show the lack of evidence for the existence of God? Just because God does not reveal God to humans does not mean that God does not exist.This is a very odd position to hold to in my opinion. Imagine that you live in a society which has an almost universal belief in the existence of dragons. One day, you decide that you wish to study dragons, but after going through all of the studies, you are struck by a lack of evidence for the existence of dragons. You refuse to believe in the existence of such dragons without proof, and you tell your colleagues that because there is no evidence for their existence, they should abandon their belief in their existence. One of them simply claims āYou are the one asserting a claim, and so the burden of proof rests on you to show that they do not exist, not on us to show that they do exist.ā
Who is right in this situation? Does the burden of proof rest with the one asserting existence or the one advancing the new claim?
I do not claim that people should abandon their belief in God.This is a very odd position to hold to in my opinion. Imagine that you live in a society which has an almost universal belief in the existence of dragons. One day, you decide that you wish to study dragons, but after going through all of the studies, you are struck by a lack of evidence for the existence of dragons. You refuse to believe in the existence of such dragons without proof, and you tell your colleagues that because there is no evidence for their existence, they should abandon their belief in their existence. One of them simply claims āYou are the one asserting a claim, and so the burden of proof rests on you to show that they do not exist, not on us to show that they do exist.ā
Who is right in this situation? Does the burden of proof rest with the one asserting existence or the one advancing the new claim?
I can. Here is the lack of evidence.Can you show the lack of evidence for the existence of God?
Your lack of evidence is missing in that postā¦I would like to read itā¦I can. Here is the lack of evidence.
Well, actually, the last three words should be omitted.
So, my position is :
No, based on arguments and reasoning I see no reason to conclude there is any kind of personal creator.
I would posit that you should actually look for evidence of causationās expansive property, rather than assert that it is not. And, despite being asked for it, you have offered no evidence suggesting that causation is not expansive.However, this is a false analogy. This argument only works because being larger than something is an expansive property. If the property being discussed is not expansive, then the fallacy still applies. I see no evidence that causation is an expansive property.
Correct, though it is completely improbably that the universe could fall into a single black hole.Being sucked into a black hole doesnāt equal leaving existence. If the whole universe fell into a black hole, then the universe would still exist. It would exist as a black hole with its singularity.
See the document at the Magis Center of Reason and Faithās document page (the page is what is linked), specifically pages 6 and 7. It is a short synopsis of what is discussed in his text that JDaniel cites.Could you expound on these examples in some detail? I donāt have that book.
Bakmoon:However, this is a false analogy. This argument only works because being larger than something is an expansive property. If the property being discussed is not expansive, then the fallacy still applies. I see no evidence that causation is an expansive property.
And a āsingularityā is what exactly? If you were to say, āa dimensionless finite number of stacked point particles,ā I might have a tough time arguing against it. However, I doubt you will. But, why, then, is the BB called the ābeginning of the universe (and time),ā and not simply āThe Universe?ā That is very selective, it seems to me. Such āselectivismā mythologizes the science of the big bang.Being sucked into a black hole doesnāt equal leaving existence. If the whole universe fell into a black hole, then the universe would still exist. It would exist as a black hole with its singularity.
Iāll give you the shortest one as a direct quote:Could you expound on these examples in some detail? I donāt have that book.
JDaniel;9700903]Bakmoon:
Bakmoon:
Why one would not apply this same causation to the largest material thing that exists (the universe) I just donāt understand,So you agree that it is completely dependent upon āproperties.ā Although it doesnāt really matter here, answer this, then, if causation is not expansive how did the human race go from two (or, ten, or a thousand) to seven billion? Or, letās take someoneās earlier analogy. Why does knocking down the first domino ultimately result in an entire chain of dominoes falling?
Good pointā¦JDaniel;9700903]Bakmoon: But, why, then, is the BB called the ābeginning of the universe (and time),ā and not simply āThe Universe?ā
Because my atheism does not require faith.
I think the problem here is that you two are probably using two entirely different definitions of āatheism.ā Correct me if I am wrong here.Based on actual proof?
Iāll wait and see what Belorg says.I think the problem here is that you two are probably using two entirely different definitions of āatheism.ā Correct me if I am wrong here.
**Joe370 **- the definition that you are using is that atheism is the doctrine that there is no God.
**Belorg **- the definition that you are using is that atheism is a classification used for those that donāt assert the existence of any gods.
If so then the irreconcilability between those two definitions is in that the definition from Joe370 involves a truth claim (which would be backed by evidence and/or faith) while Belorgās definition is pretty much the null hypothesis for existential claims. I donāt think you two will achieve agreement until you are both talking about the same thing.
But this is just my guess.
I define my atheism as ālack of belief in a personal Godā and not as the doctrine that there is no God.I think the problem here is that you two are probably using two entirely different definitions of āatheism.ā Correct me if I am wrong here.
**Joe370 **- the definition that you are using is that atheism is the doctrine that there is no God.
**Belorg **- the definition that you are using is that atheism is a classification used for those that donāt assert the existence of any gods.
If so then the irreconcilability between those two definitions is in that the definition from Joe370 involves a truth claim (which would be backed by evidence and/or faith) while Belorgās definition is pretty much the null hypothesis for existential claims. I donāt think you two will achieve agreement until you are both talking about the same thing.
But this is just my guess.