Does it make a difference?

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MrsYounan

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I was wondering if it is acceptable to be Catholic and still study and evangelize using the Cathechism and Protestant Bibles such as King James, NIV, Amplified,etc. Does one have to have a Catholic Bible in order to study the Scriptures if they are also using the Catechism? The Protestant Bibles I have, should I get rid of them and only continue to use my Catholic bibles? Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut.
Mrs. Y.
 
Thanks for the information. You guys are great!
Opus Dei
Mrs. Younan
 
MrsYounan said:
I was wondering if it is acceptable to be Catholic and still study and evangelize using the Cathechism and Protestant Bibles such as King James, NIV, Amplified,etc. Does one have to have a Catholic Bible in order to study the Scriptures if they are also using the Catechism? The Protestant Bibles I have, should I get rid of them and only continue to use my Catholic bibles? Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut.
Mrs. Y.
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You need to get a Catholic Bible. Protestant bibles do not contain the entire canon of scripture.

You don’t have to throw away your old Protestant bibles, but for study you need to get a good Catholic bible.
 
Dear 1ke,
I agree and WILL use my Catholic Bibles for Catholic studies. I think I could probably find someone who would benefit from the Protestant ones I have too. Thank you for your reply and God bless you up there in Wisconsin.
A Sister in Christ,
Mrs.Y
 
By all means, get a Catholic bible-Revised Standard Version-Catholic Edition (RSV-CE) or one of many others. There are seven less books of OT scripture in the Protestant bibles. But, keep the KJV, even with its 2,600 translation errors. You can use it against many Protestants who claim it. Just google “KJV translation errors” and see how many sites and articles pop up. Seems that Christ didn’t speak the king’s English after all.

Christ’s peace be always with you.
 
MrsYounan said:
I was wondering if it is acceptable to be Catholic and still study and evangelize using the Cathechism and Protestant Bibles such as King James, NIV, Amplified,etc. Does one have to have a Catholic Bible in order to study the Scriptures if they are also using the Catechism? The Protestant Bibles I have, should I get rid of them and only continue to use my Catholic bibles? Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut.
Mrs. Y.
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I use Protestant Bibles all the time and have 7 or 8 different versions of them for use when speaking with Protestants. When studying or researching passages use the strictly Catholic Bibles, not the Protestant or even Bibles like the New American which was compiled by both Catholic and Protestants. Because their wording can be misleading when really trying to get at the root and meaning of passages.

For instance I had someone suggest that 1 Cor 9:5 supports that Peter had a wife while traveling on his journeys. Reading the Protestant Bibles and the New American, would support this, it reads “a wife“. However reading the Douay and the Haydock foot notes explains that the Greek word used means “a woman” generically which it could include a wife, mother, sister, female assistant, etc. The Greek word specifically for “wife” is not used. The Douay translated it “a woman or sister”.
 
Dear po18guy,

Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut but I have a concern. I do not have a Duay Rheims but what word do they use to speak of the woman healed in Matt 8:14-17, Mark 1:29-34, and in Luke 4:38-41. These are all in reference to Peter’s mother-in-law. And there are specific words in the Greek and in the Hebrew that differentiate a mother , sister, wife but why they are not used in some of the early translations I do not know. Let me know what you find out. God bless you.

Mrs. Y
 
MrsYounan said:
Dear po18guy,

Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut but I have a concern. I do not have a Duay Rheims but what word do they use to speak of the woman healed in Matt 8:14-17, Mark 1:29-34, and in Luke 4:38-41. These are all in reference to Peter’s mother-in-law. And there are specific words in the Greek and in the Hebrew that differentiate a mother , sister, wife but why they are not used in some of the early translations I do not know. Let me know what you find out. God bless you.

Mrs. Y
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These verses are all from the Douay-Rheims.
Mat 8:14 And when Jesus was come into Peter’s house, he saw his wife’s mother lying, and sick of a fever;
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Mar 1:30 And Simon’s wife’s mother lay in a fit of a fever: and forthwith they tell him of her.
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Luk 4:38 And Jesus rising up out of the synagogue, went into Simon’s house. And Simon’s wife’s mother was taken with a great fever: and they besought him for her.
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lak611 said:
These verses are all from the Douay-Rheims.
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I’m not looking at the Greek or the Latin. I don’t have them in this computer. But by the way the Douay is translated I would assume that the word for wife(s) is used followed by the word for mother. I would guess that there isn’t a word for “Mother-in-law”.
Remember that because he has a mother-in-law does not mean he has a wife, it could mean that he had a wife at one time.
 
Br.Rich_SFO said:
For instance I had someone suggest that 1 Cor 9:5 supports that Peter had a wife while traveling on his journeys.
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The RSV-CE says: “Do we not have the right to be accompanied by a wife as the other apostles and the brethren of the Lord and Cephas?” The footnotes indicate “woman or sister” from the original Greek. Luke 8:3 indicates that some pious women ministered to the Apostles - although these could have been either wives, or others if the Apostles left their wives at the Lord’s command to leave all (Luke 18:28-29).

Christ’s peace.
 
Br.Rich_SFO said:
I’m not looking at the Greek or the Latin. I don’t have them in this computer. But by the way the Douay is translated I would assume that the word for wife(s) is used followed by the word for mother. I would guess that there isn’t a word for “Mother-in-law”.
Remember that because he has a mother-in-law does not mean he has a wife, it could mean that he had a wife at one time.
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Great point. It seems that we are much more picky about our scripture than the first 1,500 years or so of Christians were. My NAB, New Jerusalem and RSV-CE all use “mother-in-law”. So, if Peter was married, and Paul was not, what does it affect? Marriage or non-marriage is a dicipline, not a doctrine.

The peace of Christ.
 
po18guy said:
Great point. It seems that we are much more picky about our scripture than the first 1,500 years or so of Christians were. My NAB, New Jerusalem and RSV-CE all use “mother-in-law”. So, if Peter was married, and Paul was not, what does it affect? Marriage or non-marriage is a dicipline, not a doctrine.

The peace of Christ.
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It does not make much difference unless someone is trying to make the Catholic practice of celebacy or a Catholic teaching about the papacy look unscriptural, then it matters.
 
Br.Rich_SFO said:
It does not make much difference unless someone is trying to make the Catholic practice of celebacy or a Catholic teaching about the papacy look unscriptural, then it matters.
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It would not matter, though, since the Eastern Catholics allow men who are married to be ordained. It is just a Latin Catholic discipline.
 
Thanks to everyone who replied to my question. In my heart I feel it does make a difference. A little bit because of what my Father has taught me. Every question has an answer but only one answer can be true.
God be with you all
MrsY
 
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