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GerardPaul
Guest
My free church fellowship friend said that in Matthew 1 when it states that Joseph did not KNOW Mary untill after Jesus birth directly implies sexual relations. What say you?
Jeffrey
Jeffrey
Hi, Jeffrey.My free church fellowship friend said that in Matthew 1 when it states that Joseph did not KNOW Mary untill after Jesus birth directly implies sexual relations. What say you?
Jeffrey
Did Mary make a vow of perpetual celibacy? Some interpreters of Luke’s Gospel find evidence for it. After all, if an angel appeared to a betrothed woman and told her that she was to bear a son in the future, it would be logical of her to assume that it would be the child of her husband. Mary’s answer is very strange. It is as if she was not expecting to ever have a child.
It had been believed that celibacy was unknown among the Jews until we discovered Qumran. We now know that for the Qumran sectaries, celibacy was an eschatological symbol similar to what it is among true Christians.
We have no idea if this applied to Mary and Joseph. What we do know is that Mary was found to be pregnant before she and Joseph cohabitated. This meant that in the eyes of the community, her child was illegitimate. Whether Joseph expected to have relations with her or not makes no difference. He could still consider divorcing her for having broken their plan of celibacy. Once he found out that she was pregnant by the Holy Spirit, he would have felt vindicated in their prior decision to forego intercourse and carried on with her just as they had planned.
These cults demand that Blessed Mary and (righteous) Joseph violate the Mosaic law by having sexual relations, thus rebel against God. Stay away from such ****, its spiritually toxic.But we now have another problem. It was really nice that Joseph had a revelation concerning Mary’s moral uprightness. But, the community did not have such a revelation. They all would have assumed that Mary had taken an illicit lover and the “angel story” would not have impressed them. As such it would have been a capital offense for both of them if Joseph ever had relations with Mary, let alone if they had any children. It is clear that the Holy Spirit had the right to do what he willed to Mary, especially since she gave her consent. After all, marriage is merely the eschatological anticipation of the union of Yahweh and his People (or in NT terminology Christ and his Church) after the Resurrection. There was no moral turpitude on anyone’s part, but under the Mosaic Law, Mary and Joseph were not free to consummate their marriage anyway.
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TomK said:“Does Joseph have sexual relations with Mary”?
Umm, as far as I know, only the Mormons believe in sexual relations after death.
Therefore, from most Christians’ standpoint, I would have to answer: No, both parties are dead, therefore they do not have sex with each other.
You really think Jeffrey actually “knows” this? How, from first hand information?now u know he doesnt have relations with MARY—WHY EVEN ASK THIS QUESTION
Matt 1:25 "He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus."My free church fellowship friend said that in Matthew 1 when it states that Joseph did not KNOW Mary untill after Jesus birth directly implies sexual relations. What say you?
Jeffrey
What is evident in both of those passages is that: while persons are called Jesus’ brothers, they are not called sons of Mary.I think what the first poster is asking, is did Joseph EVER have sexual relations with Mary. This does not necessarily mean for the conception of Jesus, but did Jesus have any brothers or sisters. It is evident in scripture He did in one scene in…
I may be wrong, but I don’t think anything in Scripture prohibited it. Neither does anything in Scripture say it happened. Good thing we’ve got Apostolic Tradition to clear that up:thumbsup:Hi,
I would be interested in knowing the Scriptures that would have prohibited the sexual union between a husband and wife as it relates to Joseph and Mary after the birth of Jesus. I heard a mention of the Mosaic Law, but nothing was cited. Thanks in advance.
In His Service,
Fredrock
I’m glad you think so, but the fact that there are thousands of denominations based on the Bible says otherwise. That’s why that Ethiopian guy needed help reading Scripture.Then I think the Scriptures are clear
I suggest you should follow the Greek vocabulary because that’s the languange of the NT. “Adelphos” is used for brothers while “anepsios” (or suggenes) is for relatives.What is evident in both of those passages is that: while persons are called Jesus’ brothers, they are not called sons of Mary.
Abram and Lot, while called brothers, were uncle and nephew, respectively.
Brothers Joseph and Benjamin had 10 other brothers, yet the 12 brothers did not have the same mother.