Does Mary being born without sin mean she didn't have labor pangs?

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ElConde01867

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I am confused by what initially seems to be a contradiction in my understanding of the Magisterium’s teaching: I believe that (a) Mary was born without original sin, (b) the lady giving birth in the Book of Revelation is indeed Mary and (c) the pangs of labor were the penalty of original sin for women (as labor was for men). If these understandings are correct, then Mary, born without original sin, would have no labor pangs (is that correct?) which would seem to contradict John’s description of the lady in labor in Revelation. Where did I go wrong in this logic? Can you please tell me where I have gone astray? Thank you so very much.
 
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