P
PC_Master
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I wish I could oblige you, but the reality is that to explain the difference would require a rather full exegesis of John’s writings, which is far above and beyond what I have time for. I have no doubt whatsoever that some will uncharitably see this as an inability to respond, and though it is precisely that, it’s only due to a lack of time, not a lack of understanding or a good response.I also would like PC to begin his next post explaining why John uses the Greek “sign” instead of the word "symbol, " if John was speaking purely symbolically.
Meanwhile, I’d like to thank all of you for your contributions. While I don’t agree with all of them, I have found many of them challenging to my thought process, and this has certainly caused me to more clearly define my thoughts and reassess how John wrote about things. Ironically, this has actually confirmed my belief in the symbolism John used, rather than dispelling such.
I truly hope all those involved here will use this conversation as an opportunity to carefully study, and more importantly, to reevaluate, their beliefs, so that we can all continue to grow closer to God.
[qipte]Also, I would like PC to say why we should take “Logos” literally and “sign” symbolically, given JR’s explication.
I don’t believe logos should necessarily be seen literally – though the very idea of logos, being a concept rather than a factual reality, is not easily classifiable in either literal or figurative thought processes. I wish I had more time to clarify this, but I don’t. Sorry folks.