Yes, it is immoral for women to wear pants… according to the Bible (it does not say it in those exact words, of course, since it wasn’t being done at that time and therefore couldn’t have been condemned–unless the authors sat down and condemned every single possibility of sin, which would be impossible, anyway.)
We know from the Old Testament that cross dressing is immoral. We know that it is immoral for men to wear women’s clothes and women to wear men’s clothes: “A woman shall not be clothed with man’s apparel neither shall a man use woman’s apparel: for he that doeth these things is abominable before God.” (Deut. 22:5) That much is clearly established. The debate is in how to define what is women’s clothes and what is men’s clothes.
It seems clear to me that this conclusion is correct, as this was the constant teaching and belief even of secular society up until the 1900s. Moreover, the Cardinals and others in the Church wrote against such a practice, even in the 1960s, when women wearing men’s clothes (pants) was common-place. (
olrl.org/virtues/pants.shtml)
Now, many will allege that the society’s opinion is what dictates what is men and women’s clothes, yet this is just as ridiculous as saying that the majority society opinion dictates what it modest. Society’s opinion does not control what is and is not moral. Moreover, when exactly did it become moral to wear pants for women, if dictated by society? When over half of the people agreed that was OK? If so, how could someone know when exactly this happens? And if this is the means by which it becomes moral, then we have a problem. In order for something to become moral, it is necessary to be IMmoral for a certain period of time. This sounds like the 30 years reasoning behind abuses in the Novus Ordo. “As long as you are disobedient for 30 years, it becomes obedience.” What kind of logic is that? It presupposes that it is moral to be disobedient for that period of time or at least that it is moral to follow a practice that came as a result of constant disobedience (e.g. receiving Holy Communion in the hand).
If pants could have always been worn by women morally, why was it that when the cultures of the civilized world were Catholic, this was forbidden, and some people were put to death for doing so—by the Catholic government, no less? And is it not pretty strange that in the times of modernism, immorality, indifference, and the women’s lib movement this was introduced as OK? It seems very clear to me: when the culture was clearly Catholic, such behaviour was not permitted, but once secularized, the Catholics were either too ashamed to too indifferent to speak up. Of course, this was not true of all, as we see by the letter from the Cardinal in 1960.
Others will say that if a manufacturer makes something that is cut to fit a man, it is for men, and if a manufacturer makes something cut to fit a woman, it is from women. That is illogical, though, because if that is true, then if a designer (or if someone sewed it himself) made a dress/skirt cut to fit a man, then it would be moral for him to wear it. How obsurd that is! Others will contest that wearing something that “looks feminine” is OK for women (as if there could be a more subjective definition), yet the example I often use to show the absurdity of such a statement is that if someone made a dress with footballs on it, would that make it masculine enough for a man to wear it?
And if there is such a thing as women’s clothes (dress/skirt), how is it that NOTHING is considered intrinsically men’s clothes (e.g. pants)? That is another illogical proposition.
(please continue to next post)