A
AthanasiusOx
Guest
Well I don’t want to suggest that the ‘intentional error’ reading is necessarily the only possibility, but I find yours a little far-fetched. Do you have any support for the argument, e.g. other documents in which Babylonians were referred to as Assyrians?This is not what I would describe as an ‘obvious intentional inaccuracy to let us know it is supposed to be fiction’. If I had to come up with 100 possible explanations, that would not even have a chance of making the list. The most obvious is in someone’s vernacular the Babylonians were call Assyrians. This is really no more complicated than Europeans who assume Canadians are from the U. S., or Americans who assume Austrians are German because they speak German, or (my favorite) the Pennsylvania ‘Dutch’ who are called that because someone heard the language was ‘Deutsch’ and got it mixed up!