The question is answered specifically in question number 4 on the link that @pianistclare posted:
Does the bread cease to be bread and the wine cease to be wine?
Yes. In order for the whole Christ to be present—body, blood, soul, and divinity—the bread and wine cannot remain, but must give way so that his glorified Body and Blood may be present. Thus in the Eucharist the bread ceases to be bread in substance, and becomes the Body of Christ, while the wine ceases to be wine in substance, and becomes the Blood of Christ. As St. Thomas Aquinas observed, Christ is not quoted as saying, " This bread is my body," but " This is my body" ( Summa Theologiae, III q. 78, a. 5).
That’s simply not true, historically.Does it still look, taste, store the same as bread and wine?
For a modern englishman that is the very Oxford definition of what it means to exist as such.
Not so for the Church dictionary which was written in an older age before the rise of science.
Yes, we live in a schizophrenic philosophic world that much older generations of Catholic never faced.
Historically it was only relatively recently the people started saying that transubstantiation also means there is no bread. Usually it simply affirmed that Jesus was truly present and admitted ignorance of the status of the bread (or it didnt matter to anybody).
No.Indeed.
The issue is not over theology but over correct use of language and the definitions.of words used in different languages.
In 21st century English the bread is still present.
In Latin it is not.
Take your choice, but whatever choice you make lets respect the actual meaning of the language used to express the same reality that does not change though language may.