F
Fone_Bone_2001
Guest
I was not aware of that, though I’m not surprised. If I had had to guess, I would not have supposed that these distinctions are in any way recent.Dear brother Fone Bone,
Were you aware that the canonical distinction between the terms “immediate,” “ordinary,” and “proper” is contained not only in our current respective Codes of Canon Law, but also in the old Code of 1917? Obviously, the bishops at and after Vatican 1 never understood the Decree on the Primacy of V1 to mean that the Pope can interfere in the affairs of local Churches at his mere discretion (not to mention the explicit statement in the Decree on the Primacy that the Pope’s authority does not impede the authority of the local bishop).
Blessings,
Marduk
When I was first exposed to the documents of Vatican I, I was a bit uncomfortable. I knew - even back then, when I knew very little about the eastern Catholic churches - that the pope’s authority does not impede or supersede the authority of a local bishop, and that he really cannot interfere “at his mere discretion” as you put it.
I had basically been sitting on the question passively for a long while, and your explanation explained the source of and solution to the tension I perceived.
The reason I expected all along to discover an explanation is that I never viewed Vatican I in isolation. Looking in a nuanced way at all of Sacred Tradition regarding ecclesiology, the way the Church functioned historically, and the teachings of the Second Vatican Council on collegiality and the eastern Catholic churches, I knew that Vatican I couldn’t possibly be saying what some people interpret it to mean when looked at out of context of the rest of Tradition.