Does your Bible say this?

[M_Oliver]

For our sake HE MADE HIM TO BE SIN who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
(2 Corinthians 5:21 ESV)

If it does OR does not, could you still provide the version and the wording of the verse please…Thanks!

 

[Northwind]

Here are a few versions and what they say:

2 Cor 5:21
21 He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
NAS

2 Cor 5:21
21 God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
NIV

2 Cor 5:21
21 For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
NKJV

2 Cor 5:21
21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
KJV

2 Cor 5:21
21 Him who knew no sin he made (to be) sin on our behalf; that we might become the righteousness of God in him.
ASV

2 Cor 5:21
21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
RSV

Thats about it from what i have. I could have posted the interlinear too but that just looks too messy. Hope this helped…

 

[RCCDefender]

For our sake he made him to be sin who did not know sin, so that we might become the righteousness of God in him.
NAB

Him, who knew no sin, he hath made sin for us, that we might be made the justice of God in him.
D-RV

 

[Verita]

Interestingly, I found an NIV version which had a note saying that “to be sin” could also be translated as “to be a sin offering”.

 

[RCCDefender]

Interestingly, I found an NIV version which had a note saying that “to be sin” could also be translated as “to be a sin offering”.

Yes, the Douay Rheims I quoted noted this also: “Sin for us”… That is, to be a sin offering, a victim for sin.

 

[M_Oliver]

BINGO Verita and RCCDefender! Good job and thank you . I wanted to make a point about PAYING ATTENTION TO THE WORDS.

I only recently noticed it myself {because it was pointed out to me} so I can’t say a whole lot . Only one of my Bibles translated it correctly without having to have a note in the margin…

The Concordant Literal Version:

For the One not knowing sin, He makes to be a sin offering for our sakes that we may be becoming God’s righteousness in Him." (2 Corinthians 5:21 CLV)

I sure hope the translators who screwed up don’t REALLY think Christ was “made sin” rather than a “sin offering”.

Thanks again!

 

[RCCDefender]

BINGO Verita and RCCDefender! Good job and thank you . I wanted to make a point about PAYING ATTENTION TO THE WORDS.

I only recently noticed it myself {because it was pointed out to me} so I can’t say a whole lot . Only one of my Bibles translated it correctly without having to have a note in the margin…

The Concordant Literal Version:

For the One not knowing sin, He makes to be a sin offering for our sakes that we may be becoming God’s righteousness in Him." (2 Corinthians 5:21 CLV)

I sure hope the translators who screwed up don’t REALLY think Christ was “made sin” rather than a “sin offering”.

Thanks again!

I guess that is one reason that my old Baptist preacher wrongly taught that Jesus said on the cross “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?” He said it was because God could not look at sin and that Jesus had become sin for us!

Of course I knew he was way off base because I knew why Jesus said that, the Catholic Church had already shown me why.

 

[Sixtus]

For our sake HE MADE HIM TO BE SIN who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
(2 Corinthians 5:21 ESV)

My Bible says: ‘Christ was innocent of sin, and yet for our sake God made him one with the sinfulness of men so that in him we might be made one with the goddness of God himself’!

But then I use the New English Bible with Apocrypha

 

[Sixtus]

My problem is that after ‘of sin, and God made him…’!

But I was always taught that ‘and’ must never come after a comma. This bothers me

 

[havemercy]

I appreciate such clarifications. Thank you.

I’ve never really believed in substitutionary atonement. I still don’t know if we’re obliged to believe in that as Catholics.

Which translations are the most genuine or faithful to the original reading?

 

[JoeyWarren]

I think trying to insert “Offering” in there is bit of a stretch.

 

[brkn1]

There is a definite mystery about the mechanics of God’s transaction to save us by substituting Sinless Jesus in our place as sinners on the cross.

To reject the “substitutionary atonement” of the “Sinless One”, who became God’s only acceptable “sin offering” (a sacrifice for sin) for us sinners, is to reject the most important truth of the Gospel. We can have no righteousness of our own, unless our Mediator (Jesus) makes us “the righteousness of God in Him (Jesus)”.

 

[MarySon]

It helps to be bilingual. The Polish Bible (Biblia Tysiaclecia) states something like that: “He for us made Him a sin, who did not know sin, so that in Him we may become the righteousness of God” (Translation mine). There is a footnote that refers to this sentence. It consists the following:
God for us made Him a sin because:

1. In the sense of an external solidarity with a sinful human nature (refer to Rm 8:3) -or-
2. He was a sin according to a Jewish believes, who considered anyone who died on the cross a criminal (ref. Ga 3:13) -or-
3. He was the offering for sin, which the Old Testament sometimes calls ‘sin’ (ref. to Is 53:10+)

Just my early morning musing.

 

[Will_Pick]

For our sake HE MADE HIM TO BE SIN who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.

(2 Corinthians 5:21 ESV)

If it does OR does not, could you still provide the version and the wording of the verse please…Thanks!

For our sake he made him to be sin who did not know
sin, so that we might become the righteousness of God in him.

 

[Daniel_Marsh]

biblegateway.com/passage/

bible.cc/

bible.crosswalk.com/

there are about a dozen or so translations at these above links.

 

[Daniel_Marsh]

Also, if you go to newadvent.org and search there on a phrase like For he hath made him to be sin for us you wil get links to where various church fathers commented on the phrase or scripture in question. Just use your find feature under edit menu above to locate the phrase on the page.

newadvent.org/fathers/220211.htm

newadvent.org/summa/4046.htm

newadvent.org/fathers/140614.htm

newadvent.org/fathers/160384.htm

newadvent.org/summa/4015.htm

newadvent.org/search/?cx=000299817191393086628%3Aifmbhlr-8x0&q=For+he+hath+made+him+to+be+sin+for+us&sa=Search&cof=FORID%3A9

 

[Chris_LaRock]

I guess that is one reason that my old Baptist preacher wrongly taught that Jesus said on the cross “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?” He said it was because God could not look at sin and that Jesus had become sin for us!

From what I understand, Jesus was taking our punishment upon Himself when He went to the cross. Eternal seperation from God was one of them that He experienced. I always took His exclaimation to reflect that moment in time when He experienced that seperation - from a human standpoint.

 

[PaulDupre]

For God made Christ,who never sinned, to be the offering for our sin, so that we could be made right with God through Christ. -(2 Cor 5:21 New Living Translation, Catholic Reference Edition)

God love you,
Paul

 

[RCCDefender]

From what I understand, Jesus was taking our punishment upon Himself when He went to the cross. Eternal seperation from God was one of them that He experienced. I always took His exclaimation to reflect that moment in time when He experienced that seperation - from a human standpoint.

Not at all! Faithful Jews knew the Psalms by heart. Now, Jesus was in no condition as he was hanging on the cross to be saying an entire Psalm but when He said the first line all the others Jews at the crucifixion would have known the one He meant. Look up Psalm 22 and read it. You’ll see that Jesus was certainly not saying that God had abandoned Him.

 

[Chris_LaRock]

Not at all! Faithful Jews knew the Psalms by heart. Now, Jesus was in no condition as he was hanging on the cross to be saying an entire Psalm but when He said the first line all the others Jews at the crucifixion would have known the one He meant. Look up Psalm 22 and read it. You’ll see that Jesus was certainly not saying that God had abandoned Him.

Psa 22:1 My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? why art thou so far from helping me, and from the words of my roaring?

I know God didn’t abandon Him. He was simply experiencing what seperation from God would feel like from a human perspective. Jesus was taking upon Himself the punishments we sinful humans deserve - in our place. This was simply another aspect of His atonement.