Does Zechariah 14 actually foreshadow Eucharistic sacrifice?

[ElKabong61]

Hi all. About 4 years ago, I was looking for a good conversion book to share with an ex-Catholic. I’d just read David Currie’s “Born Fundamentalist, Born Again Catholic” and thought my friend might get something out of it. Of course, he read the book much more critically. (As far as I was concerned, Currie was “preaching to the crowd”.)

My friend wrote me back objecting to Currie’s assertion that the sacrifice of the eucharist was foreshadowed in Zechariah 14. Unfortuntely, I never was able to reply to what he wrote, and during the next couple of years, his marriage fell apart. In hindsight, I should have come here to ask the question. Trying to fix that now.

###Here is my Protestant friend’s complaint about the passage of the book in question:

"Currie refers to Zechariah 14:20,21. Read the paragraph about the student who asked the question, “If Jesus’ sacrifice is final and complete, why will there be sacrifices needed in Jerusalem after the death and Resurrection of Jesus?” Then on page 46, because he couldn’t come up with a good explanation, he said that Zechariah had to be referring to the Eucharist.

Currie says that it’s a problem for Evangelicals, and there is no good answer. I can give you an answer, simply by reading my Bible:

“Then the survivors from all the nations that have attacked Jerusalem will go up year after year to worship the King, the LORD Almighty, and to celebrate the Feast of Tabernacles.” Zech 14:16

The context in Zech 14 is the Feast of Tabernacles. It says “Feast of Tabernacles” again in verse 18 and 19. So the answer to Currie’s question about verse 20 and 21 will relate to the Feast of Tabernacles.

In Leviticus 23 it describles what Moses told the Israelites about the Sabbath, Passover, Firstfruits, Feast of Weeks, Trumpets, Day of Atonement, and the Feast of Tabernacles. Some of them were commanded to be “a lasting ordinance for the generations to come, whereever you live.”

The Feast of Tabernacles, mentioned in Zechariah 14, is a lasting ordinance. It’s for the Jews. And most important to Currie’s misunderstanding is that there is not a sacrifice made for sin. It’s a celebration for the harvest. It’s a seven day long party. The is no connection to the Eucharist, which would correlate to Passover, not Tabernacles. Currie’s question about why would there be “sacrifices” after the Resurrection is that it’s a lasting ordinance for the JEWS, but it’s not a sacrifice for sin. (I don’t think that Passover was even commanded to be a lasting ordinance, which is interesting. Because Passover would have been once and for all fulfilled by Jesus.)""
###(End of Protestant comments)

(Here is a link to where Currie again relates this epiphany he had with that bible passage: Born Fundamentalist, Born Again Catholic - The Coming Home Network)

Could someone help me to answer my friend’s objections–or is he correct in asserting that Currie doesn’t have any reason to make this sort of connection between Zechariah 14 and the eucharist?

Thanks in advance!!

 

[Barzillai]

FWIW here is Haydock’s Commentary on Zechariah 14:16, 20

Ver. 16. Left. That is, many of them that persecuted the Church shall be converted to its faith and communion, (Ch.) particularly after Constantine. C. — Tabernacles. This feast was kept by the Jews, in memory of their sojourning forty years in the desert, in their way to the land of promise. And in the spiritual sense, is duly kept by all such Christians as in their earthly pilgrimage are continually advancing towards their true home, the heavenly Jerusalem, by the help of the sacraments and sacrifice of the Church. And they that neglect this, must not look for the kind showers of divine grace to give fruitfulness to their souls. Ch. — Out of the Church there is no salvation. C. — Other things may be obtained. S. Cyp. H. — The converts shall celebrate the Christian festivals, and merit great rewards, while infidels shall remain barren and devoid of eternal happiness. W. — We have no solemnity of tabernacles; but Gentiles keep the Epiphany in thanksgiving for their vocation to God’s admirable light. 1 Pet ii. 9. C.

Ver. 20. Bridle. The golden ornaments of the bridle, &c. shall be turned into offerings in the house of God. And there shall be an abundance of cauldrons and phials for the sacrifices of the temple; by which is meant, under a figure, the great resort there shall be to the temple, that is, to the Church of Christ, and her sacrifice. Ch. — It is of a different nature, being the body and blood of Christ. But it shall not be confined to one place, nor the priesthood to one family. v. 21. Heb. “they shall inscribe on the stables, Holy,” &c. The most filthy places shall be purified and changed into temples; or, “what is upon the little bells for horses shall be sanctified;” or, on these “bells shall be inscribed, sacred to the Lord.” C. — Metsilloth may signify a bell or bridle, &c. H. — The bits were often of gold. Æn. vii. and viii. C. — S. Jerom’s master said the word should be motsiluth, “trappings” and armour. H.

 

[BartholomewB]

Currie’s assertion that the sacrifice of the eucharist was foreshadowed in Zechariah 14.

I am familiar with the interpretation that, in the Messianic era, the whole world will worship the one true God, the God of Israel. This is the first time I’ve heard it suggested that the passage in Zechariah has anything to do with the Eucharist. It’s also the first time I’ve heard the name David Currie. Does he say where he got this idea from?

 

[EXdrinker]

The Feast of Tabernacles, mentioned in Zechariah 14, is a lasting ordinance. It’s for the Jews. And most important to Currie’s misunderstanding is that there is not a sacrifice made for sin. It’s a celebration for the harvest. It’s a seven day long party. The is no connection to the Eucharist, which would correlate to Passover, not Tabernacles.

Even assuming that the sacrifices at the Feast of Tabernacles were not sacrifices made for sin, the Feast of Tabernacles falls five days after Yom Kippur, The Day of Atonement, which was certainly sacrifices for sin.

Interestingly Peter’s confession of Jesus as the Son and the Transfiguration where Peter offers to build tabernacles for Jesus, Moses and Elijah are five days apart. Matthew doesn’t separate these two events. They are only 11 verses and 5 days of time during Jesus’ ministry apart in Matthew’s gospel. If we liken the tabernacles that Peter offers to build to the Feast of Tabernacles and count back the 6 days stated in Matt 17:1 (remember Jews of that time count the current day as 1 when counting days thus making 5) that would put Peter’s confession on the Day of Atonement. That seems to make a pretty strong connection between the feast of the forgiveness of sins and the feast of tabernacles, at least to Matthew and the early Christians I am sure.

Might as well connect this to Peter being the first pope while I am at it. The Day of Atonement was, at the very least symbolically, the day that Jesus asked His disciples, “Who do you say that I am?” We all know what Peter answered and that Jesus promised him the power to bind and loose. On the Day of Atonement, Jesus, the Son of the Living God, promised to give to Peter His power to bind consciences and forgive sins. God Almighty, on the holiest day of the year to the people of God, on the day of forgiveness of sins, gave His power to Peter. The verses of Jesus promising this of course echo the passages in Isaiah 22:22. Isa 22:21 is the verse that likens the person with that power to a father/papa/pope to the people. Your friend won’t see it but it is there. †

 

[Todd_Easton]

The Feast of Tabernacles, mentioned in Zechariah 14, is a lasting ordinance. It’s for the Jews. And most important to Currie’s misunderstanding is that there is not a sacrifice made for sin. It’s a celebration for the harvest. It’s a seven day long party. The is no connection to the Eucharist, which would correlate to Passover, not Tabernacles. Currie’s question about why would there be “sacrifices” after the Resurrection is that it’s a lasting ordinance for the JEWS, but it’s not a sacrifice for sin.

Actually, “a sin offering” of one male goat was prescribed for each of the seven days of the Feast of Tabernacles, starting on the fifteenth day of the seventh month. See Numbers 29:16,19,22,25,28,31,34,38; also see Ezekiel 45:25, where unspecified “sin offerings” related to the feast are mentioned.

So, Mr. Currie’s questioning a literalistic interpretation of the prophecy of Zechariah 14 is valid. That it rather might be a prophecy concerning the Eucharistic sacrifice under the figure of the Feast of Tabernacles would be in accord with what St Paul said in Colossians 2:16-17 concerning such ancient Jewish festivals, namely, that they “are only a shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ.”