T
thistle
Guest
As a Catholic I fully accept the Church’s position that Mary was a virgin for her whole life but when was this position taken and on what was it based? I am reading the Catholic Study Bible (which has a lot of study notes) and a verse in Matthew and another in Luke imply otherwise.
Matthew 1:25 says “He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus”.
The study notes say that “the evangelist is concerned to emphasise that Joseph was not responsible for the conception of Jesus, and that the Greek word translated “until” does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus’ birth, nor does it exclude it”. I don’t know any Greek but certainly the English word “until” does imply.
Luke 2:7 says “and she gave birth to her firstborn son”.
The study notes say “the description of Jesus as firstborn son does not necessarily mean that Mary had other sons and that it is a legal description…”.
In English, to me, firstborn definitely implies there would be other sons.
As I said earlier I fully accept Mary’s perpetual viginity but I’m interested in how the Church’s position came about.
Matthew 1:25 says “He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus”.
The study notes say that “the evangelist is concerned to emphasise that Joseph was not responsible for the conception of Jesus, and that the Greek word translated “until” does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus’ birth, nor does it exclude it”. I don’t know any Greek but certainly the English word “until” does imply.
Luke 2:7 says “and she gave birth to her firstborn son”.
The study notes say “the description of Jesus as firstborn son does not necessarily mean that Mary had other sons and that it is a legal description…”.
In English, to me, firstborn definitely implies there would be other sons.
As I said earlier I fully accept Mary’s perpetual viginity but I’m interested in how the Church’s position came about.