Hi D,
Touche. Yet one does not need to change a doctrine but rather get back to it’s original intent. So the law does not change in essence , but rather it’s interpretation, application formulating a “tradition”.
Yet Christ did say specifically that the Pharisees had doctrine to beware off (error) , not just hypocritical application.
Blessings
Christ also made it clear the the doctrine to beware of originated with the Pharisees, so they were adding. But Christ also said to follow the teachings because they had the authority that came from Moses’ seat. Obviously, the teachings were good, or Jesus would not say to obey them. Somewhere in between the teaching, and the application something went amiss. The Pharisees were never promised the Spirit to guide them, as the Church was.
Hi D,
I have given a few…
The ones you gave, I said can be shown from other passages of Scripture can be proven to be conditional. Not so in this case.
but for the sake for discussion, can the pope not bind that the Easter Bunny and Santa Claus are real ? Can he not elevate Mary as everlasting (no beginning) ? ,claiming revelation from the Holy Ghost ?
Any negative answer can only refer to conditional binding.
Yes he can. But he won’t. The gift came with a guarantee that if it is bound on Earth, it shall be bound in Heaven. Jesus gave us a gift to never have to worry about whether the Church has bound, or will bind, in error. Was it possible for Christ to sin, or would He always choose the right thing?
If I give my daughter a $100,000, and say spend it on whatever you want, does my knowing she will not ever gamble one penny of it away, mean the gift was conditional?
That is the beauty of Christ’s promise. He gave the Church a gift, knowing she would never bind in error.
Does perfect guidance always suggest perfect following ?
You are right, no it does not. But…while this is true for individuals, it is not true for His institution, the Church. It has always been understood (and the writings of the early fathers bear this point out), that were the Church to ever officially teach error, then the gates of Hell had prevailed.
To rationalize the seeming dichotomy that was before them, the Reformers had to change the meaning of what the gates of Hell prevailing meant. They did this to justify how it could be that for 1500 years, the doctine that is essential to Protestantism, cannot be found in the Catholic Church. Under the old formula, such a doctrine not being able to be found taught anywhere in the Church, would mean that Hell had prevailed.
Let’s say I was a Judaizer, with followers, living in Antioch at the time of the Council of Jerusalem. We searched the Scriptures, and guided by the Spirit, we believe the council got it wrong, and choose to ignore what the council taught. We continued teaching that the Gentiles must be circumcised, what would our standing be in relation to the Church of the Apostles? Would we be in schism? Under your system of beliefs, how would we know?