Dogmas

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In researching dogmas I’ve found they are defined against the background of heresy. Vatican I for instance declared papal infallibility probably in response to Protestantism and division. The Assumption of the Blessed Virgin Mary was proclaimed dogmatically to affirm the dignity and destiny of humans against the abuse of the Nazis. That is what I read anyway.

Was there any heresy or tendency that contributed to the proclamation as dogma the immaculate conception? Was this dogma proclaimed by the Pope meant to guard against heresy?
 
There was some confusion that the immaculate conception referred to the virgin birth of Jesus (it is about Mary being conceived without sin). Also, from what I understand, some Protestants questioned Mary’s lack of sinfulness.
 
AFAIK most Protestants do not accept the Immaculate Conception.
 
In researching dogmas I’ve found they are defined against the background of heresy.
I don’t think that is always the case.

I understood that the dogma regarding the Immaculate Conception was principally due to the overwhelming belief in it within the Church. As well as the endurance of it within the Church.

Some doctrine comes from a crisis of teaching false doctrine (Arianism, Marcionism, Docetism, Nestorianism, etc), however in this case, I understood it to be a demand of the laity.

Of course, I could be completely wrong about this, but I recall something about this one case in particular when I was listening to lectures on the History of the Papacy on DVD. It sparked my interest in the matter.

I think there was some very early writing about the subject as well, though not considered sacred writings. Perhaps I am thinking about the Protoevangleium of James? Perhaps another such one.
 
AFAIK most Protestants do not accept the Immaculate Conception.
I think but I’m not sure the Lutherans might. I was just reading the other day they except the first 4 ecumenical councils we had while we accept of course up to vatican ii. I don’t know abouth the synods. Like the Jerusalem synod. I don’t know much about them. You don’t hear much.
 
You might find the book Dissent From The Creed by Hogan an interesting read vis-a-vis heresy and definition of dogma.
 
In researching dogmas I’ve found they are defined against the background of heresy. Vatican I for instance declared papal infallibility probably in response to Protestantism and division. The Assumption of the Blessed Virgin Mary was proclaimed dogmatically to affirm the dignity and destiny of humans against the abuse of the Nazis. That is what I read anyway.

Was there any heresy or tendency that contributed to the proclamation as dogma the immaculate conception? Was this dogma proclaimed by the Pope meant to guard against heresy?
Well, yes and no.

No in so far as that it wasn’t the purpose of Pius IX’s declaration. According to his letter, it was to show Mary honor, and in response to the request of the faithful. It wasn’t explicitly in response to any formal heresy at the time.

But, by the guidance of the Holy Spirit, it was actually an antidote to some of the philosophies which were coming into the fray at that time. Philosophers, like Nietzsche and Marx etc…were introducing the idea there was no such thing as sin. Every human being was basically an Immaculate Conception according to them. (Of course, they didn’t call it that) The dogma of the IC was the Church’s way of guarding the truth that there is such a thing as sin, and there’s only one human person who’s ever been conceived without it, (besides Adam and Eve) and that was only through the grace of her Son and Savior, not her own power. So in that sense it did counter a heresy. That just wasn’t its original purpose, at least not the Pope’s original purpose.

I feel like I’m not explaining this well. I hope it made some sense. :o I just can’t seem to put it in the right words. Fulton Sheen actually talks about exactly this in his book, “The World’s First Love” I really liked how he explained it. He said basically what I just said but only much better of course. 🙂 I used to wonder this exact same question, and that book really shed a lot of light on the Immaculate Conception for me. So far it’s one of my favorite books by him.
 
Was there any heresy or tendency that contributed to the proclamation as dogma the immaculate conception? Was this dogma proclaimed by the Pope meant to guard against heresy?
I don’t know if a particular heresy contributed to it, but this was a major controversy within the Church for centuries. There were two schools of thought: the Dominicans generally held that Mary was conceived in sin and then immediately cleanses, whereas the Franciscans held that she was conceived without sin from the moment of conception. Over the course of the centuries, the Franciscan position was adopted by most, while the Dominican position was pretty much abandoned. Pius XII finally settled the issue dogmatically with the definition.
 
Zwingli:

“I esteem immensely the Mother of God, the ever chaste,** immaculate** Virgin Mary.” (E. Stakemeier, De Mariologia et Oecumenismo, K. Balic, ed., (Rome, 1962), 456.)

With Calvin its not clear if he accepted or rejected the Immaculate Conception but I can’t find anything from his own words condemning it.
 
With Calvin its not clear if he accepted or rejected the Immaculate Conception but I can’t find anything from his own words condemning it.
Calvin was a Catholic who, at one time, seriously considered a priestly vocation, so I think it is safe to assume that he accepted the Immaculate Conception, at least in his earlier years. If he came to later reject it, he did not do so in such a way that it is apparent in Google.
 
Calvin was a Catholic who, at one time, seriously considered a priestly vocation, so I think it is safe to assume that he accepted the Immaculate Conception, at least in his earlier years. If he came to later reject it, he did not do so in such a way that it is apparent in Google.
I tend to agree with you.
 
I am pleased to have that (Calvin and Zwingli’s stances) clarified. Thanks!
 
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