"Don't read bible literally"?

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No, not the people. What is written in the Od Testament was inspired by God. They weren’t exaggerations( ex. Moses parting the waters…Jonah in the belly of the fish, etc.)
What Jesus,( Son of God) said in a parable or an instruction ......was exaggerated by Him, for a specific reason.
 
So you dont have an opinion one way or another?
I think it’s more like “I don’t really care one way or another.” As I said, I don’t count the historicity of the Jonah story as being of the same level of importance as, say, the historicity of Jesus or Adam and Eve.* I don’t think any real major tenet of Christianity stands or falls on whether the story in the book of Jonah literally happened as written or not. (I don’t count Jesus’ simile here, as mentioned.) IMHO it would only be a problem for those who have a literalistic view of Scripture.

This is just my opinion, of course; one is free to believe in the Jonah story as something that literally occurred.
 
I came across a comment that I am not certain I understand. In it, the author was stating that he reads the bible literally, and the hardest part for him, who is in formation for the diaconate, was to be open to interpret the scripture differently, so he can minister to all His children.

Can someone explain this to me better? Is the author saying that because the bible was written over 2000 years ago and in a different language, we may need to adjust what we interpret what is being said? Sort of like if I said it was raining “cats and dogs” that doesn’t mean cans and dogs are literally falling from the sky, but someone 2000 years from now, who speaks a different language may not understand that.

Pax,
First. Not every verse in Scripture automatically turns into a duly defined, properly proclaimed Catholic Church Doctrine.

Thus," to interpret the scripture differently" is a tad silly because it is not specific as to which passages in Scripture are being explored. For example. Chapter 6, Gospel of John. In this century, there are a variety of sincere modern Christian Faiths. So, should we adjust “I am the bread of life.” according to the four senses of Scripture in order to get the modern interpretation?

Second. In the Catholic Church, there is a fifth sense of interpretation–the theological interpretation.

The theological interpretation based on Divine Revelation in Holy Scripture is proclaimed via major ecumenical councils according to chapter 14, Gospel of John.

Third. Being “open to interpret” is also a tad silly because of the confusion caused by modern interpretations which suit personal preferences.

In trying to be broad minded in modern times, there are some, not all, Catholics who freely choose to bypass some of the annoying Catholic Doctrines.
 
I think it’s more like “I don’t really care one way or another.” As I said, I don’t count the historicity of the Jonah story as being of the same level of importance as, say, the historicity of Jesus or Adam and Eve.* I don’t think any real major tenet of Christianity stands or falls on whether the story in the book of Jonah literally happened as written or not. (I don’t count Jesus’ simile here, as mentioned.) IMHO it would only be a problem for those who have a literalistic view of Scripture.

This is just my opinion, of course; one is free to believe in the Jonah story as something that literally occurred.
Maybe I’m missing something here, but do you believe Jonah was in the belly of the fish for 3 days or not?
 
Maybe I’m missing something here, but do you believe Jonah was in the belly of the fish for 3 days or not?
I believe I answered that. 😃 But if you care for a recap: the text doesn’t say “two days” or “seven days,” so obviously, yeah, “three days and three nights.” The only thing to keep in mind is that for the original audience, ‘three days’ does not mean the exact same thing it does to us (= different way of calculating time).

Speaking of which, what exactly do you mean by the question? Were you asking about Jonah, about the fish, or about the days? 😉
 
I have to believe that they all used exaggerations in some form to get the message across. I’m not so concerned with the exactness of things (r.g. millions of people vs 13,245 people actually) so much as the meaning of what is written.
 
They all used ( hyperbole ) to make a point but not when describing actual events…

example : In 1Kings 18 - 40 Elijah used sarcasm to taunt the prophets of Baal…“shout louder… maybe your god is sleeping or relieving himself.” (funny stuff!)

But “then the fire of the Lord fell & burned up the sacrifice, the wood, soil & water.” This is no longer hyperbole but an actual, factual account!
 
Which means its value is similar to that of Tobit and Judith. There is a line which states, “All stories are true, and some really happened.” Jesus mentioning the Book of Jonah doesn’t mean everything in the story really happened - but is saying something like, “You know the story of Jonah, right? Well, just like Jonah was swallowed by the fish and stayed there three days, I will die and come back to life on the third day.” He’s using the story to show what will happen to Him.
 
I came across a comment that I am not certain I understand. In it, the author was stating that he reads the bible literally, and the hardest part for him, who is in formation for the diaconate, was to be open to interpret the scripture differently.
He is talking about the different modes of senses of Scripture.

bobstanley.tripod.com/senses.htm

1. Literal Sense: word for word verbatim. A word by itself can have many meanings. The Literal sense of Scripture can be one of the following:
  • a. Historical sense: Based on, or concerned with events in history.
    b. Etiological sense: Studying causes or origins.
    c. Analogical sense: Based on an analogy. Similarity in some respects between things that are dissimilar.
    d. Plenary sense: GOD may imply more in the words of Scripture that the human author is conscious of. There may be a hidden meaning in the words to be revealed later.
    f. Metaphorical sense: Also called the ‘Figurative’ sense.

    2. Spiritual Sense:
  • Also called ‘Typological’ or ‘Mystical’ sense. The sacred writer had nothing to do to introduce the ‘Spiritual’ sense. It was put there by GOD and the human writer was unconscious of it.

    3.. Parabolical Sense:
  • a. Parables: A story to illustrate a lesson. Mt 24:32-35, Lk 16:19-31.
 
I believe I answered that. 😃 But if you care for a recap: the text doesn’t say “two days” or “seven days,” so obviously, yeah, “three days and three nights.” The only thing to keep in mind is that for the original audience, ‘three days’ does not mean the exact same thing it does to us (= different way of calculating time).

Speaking of which, what exactly do you mean by the question? Were you asking about Jonah, about the fish, or about the days? 😉
The three days.
 
Of course, there are some things that are pretty straightforward, but there are also things in the literal reading that would not make any sense or would sound unfamiliar/weird unless you know a thing or two about the culture (stuff like all those kissing as a way of greeting people, for example).
So maybe Resurrection was a thing about the time/place/culture that we fail to recognize since we dont know the nuances of a culture 2000 years ago. Maybe by Resurrection they meant Jesus’ teachings lived on, not that Jesus actually rose from the dead?
 
So maybe Resurrection was a thing about the time/place/culture that we fail to recognize since we dont know the nuances of a culture 2000 years ago. Maybe by Resurrection they meant Jesus’ teachings lived on, not that Jesus actually rose from the dead?
Now I see why you list your religion as “unsure”…You better read a bible, Pal! 😦
 
So maybe Resurrection was a thing about the time/place/culture that we fail to recognize since we dont know the nuances of a culture 2000 years ago. Maybe by Resurrection they meant Jesus’ teachings lived on, not that Jesus actually rose from the dead?
Nuh-uh. The problem with this Rudolf Bultmann-esque idea of a spiritual, ‘Jesus lived on in the hearts of His disciples’-type resurrection is that it wouldn’t explain why Christianity arose in the first place. If the disciples simply believed in a metaphorical resurrection, it wouldn’t explain all the related beliefs: the idea of Jesus being vindicated by God from His shameful death (by sitting Him in His right hand), the idea of Jesus as Messiah and the Lord of the world (the resurrection was seen as God’s ratifying this claim), the idea of Jesus being the ‘firstborn from the dead’ (the Jews believed in a general resurrection of the righteous; Jesus is unusual in that His disciples believed Him to have been raised up in advance, in anticipation of the final resurrection).

N.T. Wright said it best:

You see, it would have been very natural for first-century Jews, especially if they had belonged to a kingdom-of-God movement already, to say of a leader who had paid the ultimate penalty at the hands of the authorities, that his soul was in the hand of God, that he was alive to God, that he had been exalted to paradise, and that be was therefore among the righteous who had been unjustly put to death but who would rise again to rule the world in God’s good time. (This is, of course, exactly what Wisdom 3:1-9 does say?) And if Jesus’ followers had indeed had a sense that he was alive in a nonphysical way, and even that he was still present with them in some fashion, this is how they would have expressed it. But in so doing they would not have been claiming (to stress the point again) that the eschaton, the longed-for kingdom of God, had now arrived; they would not have been saying that their crucified leader was the Messiah; and above all they would not have been saying that he had been raised from the dead or that “the resurrection of the dead” had now occurred.

In particular, we have no reason to suppose that after the crucifixion of a would-be messiah anyone would suppose that he had been exalted to a place either of world rulership or divine lordship. Nobody, so far as we know, ever suggested that this was the case after the deaths of Judas the Galilean, Simon bar-Giora, or Simeon ben-Kosiba. Actually, such a suggestion would most likely have been regarded as at best ridiculous and at worst scandalous. The failure of such men to lead a successful messianic movement debarred them from further consideration as candidates for such a position. Even if someone had made such a suggestion, however, they would not then have gone on to say that this person had been “raised from the dead.” Belief in exaltation alone would not lead, in the world of first-century Judaism, to belief in resurrection. If, by contrast, we suppose that the followers of a crucified would-be messiah first came to believe that he had been bodily raised from the dead, then we can trace a clear line by which they subsequently would have come to believe that he must be the Messiah. And if he was the Messiah, then he was also the world ruler promised in Psalm 89 and Daniel 7, and thus he was exalted over the world, and so on. All our texts suggest that this actually was the train of thought that the early Christians followed.
 
Now I see why you list your religion as “unsure”…You better read a bible, Pal! 😦
Remember St. Thomas putting his finger in Jesus’ wounds & saying “my Lord & my God?”

It wasn’t a word or teaching that came into the room.

Also, about 500 people saw the Risen Christ.
 
The three days.
I could type out my answer, but I hope it doesn’t confuse you more than you already are. 😊

This may not sound like much of an answer to you, but just like what I said: the way ancient Israelites/Jews reckoned time, their ‘three days’ may not be exactly the same as our ‘three days’.

I mean, in our modern way of understanding time, we understand ‘three days’ as ‘three full 24-hour periods’ (i.e. 72 hours), right? That’s why some people argue that Jesus couldn’t have been crucified on a Friday and then rose on a Sunday, because that’d be just more or less two days in our time reckoning. But ancient Jewish time reckoning can consider ‘three days’ to refer to any part of three days and nights: it’s a figure of speech called synecdoche (reckoning a part for the whole). It does not literally have to mean full 72 hours of three days. In Jesus’ case, He was in the tomb part of Friday, all of Saturday, and part of Sunday: not exactly 72 hours, but still ‘three days’ in ancient figure of speech. (Remember that Jews considered a day to begin at sundown.)
 
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