Don't understand to well what Christ says on divorce

[sidetrack]

“It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife,except for marital unfaithfulness,causes her to become an adulteress,and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery” -NIV Matthew 5:31-33

It seems straightforward but if taken to much “to the tooth” I’m guessing it would likely cause problems btw ppl when they think about why their marriages are ending.What has to be brought up to understand this passage better ?.

 

[Ad_Orientem]

What has to be brought up is that you’re quoting a heretical translation.

*porneia *means uncleanness, or in this case fornication, not adultery. Even though it could mean adultery categorically, the Church has not approved that translation.

The Douay reads: “whosoever shall put away his wife, excepting for the cause of fornication, maketh her to commit adultery …”

The RSV-CE has: “whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity…”

The NAB uses: “whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) …”

In other words, it’s about a pre-existing condition unknown to one party, not something that happens after they’re married.

 

[jmcrae]

What has to be brought up is that you’re quoting a heretical translation.

*porneia *means uncleanness, or in this case fornication, not adultery. Even though it could mean adultery categorically, the Church has not approved that translation.

The Douay reads: “whosoever shall put away his wife, excepting for the cause of fornication, maketh her to commit adultery …”

The RSV-CE has: “whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity…”

The NAB uses: “whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) …”

In other words, it’s about a pre-existing condition unknown to one party, not something that happens after they’re married.

Absolutely correct.

Jesus is giving us a new Sacrament - the Sacrament of Marriage. It is between one man and one woman, neither of whom have ever been married before, and it is a permanent covenant, until the death of one of the spouses. Death alone releases us from the promises we make to our spouses at the Altar.

 

[po18guy]

Since He ascended, Christ speaks through His Church, i.e. Acts 15. The Church, in her catechism given to us, addresses “divorce” in the following paragraphs:

1650-1651
1664
2382-2386
2400

They are short paragraphs. A quick read is enlightening.

 

[Todd977]

It may just be a coincidence but St. Matthew is the only gospel writer to mention a divorce exception and also the only one to mention that righteous St. Joseph was going to divorce the Virgin Mary when he learned that she was already pregnant before their marriage was consummated. Perhaps St. Matthew’s mention of a divorce exception was simply meant to justify St. Joseph’s intention to divorce the Virgin Mary. If this is the case, St. Matthew’s divorce exception would only apply to unconsummated marriages, as suggested by the Catholic Church’s Code of Canon Law:

Can. 1141 A marriage which is ratified and consummated cannot be dissolved by any human power or by any cause other than death.

Can. 1142 A non-consummated marriage between baptised persons or between a baptised party and an unbaptised party can be dissolved by the Roman Pontiff for a just reason, at the request of both parties or of either party, even if the other is unwilling.

 

[irenaeuslyons]

It may just be a coincidence but St. Matthew is the only gospel writer to mention a divorce exception and also the only one to mention that righteous St. Joseph was going to divorce the Virgin Mary when he learned that she was already pregnant before their marriage was consummated. Perhaps St. Matthew’s mention of a divorce exception was simply meant to justify St. Joseph’s intention to divorce the Virgin Mary. If this is the case, St. Matthew’s divorce exception would only apply to unconsummated marriages, as suggested by the Catholic Church’s Code of Canon Law:

Can. 1141 A marriage which is ratified and consummated cannot be dissolved by any human power or by any cause other than death.

Can. 1142 A non-consummated marriage between baptised persons or between a baptised party and an unbaptised party can be dissolved by the Roman Pontiff for a just reason, at the request of both parties or of either party, even if the other is unwilling.

The code of canon law has no standing as it did not exist at this time. I think divorce is brought up by Matthew because Jesus wanted to perfect the existing teaching on marriage which lost sight of what it was originally. Much like the Law, Jesus does not destroy it, but rather perfects it and simplifies it. Secondly, Matthew is writing principally to the Jews who had marriage contracts. The other Gospels are not addressed principally to the Jews.

 

[Prayer_Warrior]

Another teaching on marriage comes from Malachi 2:14-16.

And you say, “Why?”—
Because the LORD is witness
between you and the wife of your youth
With whom you have broken faith,
though she is your companion, your covenanted wife.*
15
h Did he not make them one, with flesh and spirit?
And what does the One require? Godly offspring!
You should be on guard, then, for your life,
and do not break faith with the wife of your youth.
16
For I hate divorce,
says the LORD, the God of Israel,
And the one who covers his garment with violence,
says the LORD of hosts.
You should be on guard, then, for your life,
and you must not break faith.

 

[Todd977]

The code of canon law has no standing as it did not exist at this time. I think divorce is brought up by Matthew because Jesus wanted to perfect the existing teaching on marriage which lost sight of what it was originally. Much like the Law, Jesus does not destroy it, but rather perfects it and simplifies it. Secondly, Matthew is writing principally to the Jews who had marriage contracts. The other Gospels are not addressed principally to the Jews.

Granted, the Code of Canon Law is a modern document but it reflects the Church’s ancient teaching on valid Christian marriages, namely, that non-consummated ones can be dissolved for a just reason but consummated ones cannot be dissolved for any reason other than the death of the spouse. If Matthew’s divorce exception is understood as applying to valid Christian marriages, then it must be understood as applying only of non-consummated ones, similar to the marriage of St. Joseph and the Virgin Mary described by St. Matthew.

 

[thenobes]

What has to be brought up is that you’re quoting a heretical translation.

*porneia *means uncleanness, or in this case fornication, not adultery. Even though it could mean adultery categorically, the Church has not approved that translation.

The Douay reads: “whosoever shall put away his wife, excepting for the cause of fornication, maketh her to commit adultery …”

The RSV-CE has: “whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity…”

The NAB uses: “whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) …”

In other words, it’s about a pre-existing condition unknown to one party, not something that happens after they’re married.

AD,

From a paperback i have, “Catholics and Orthodox, can they unite?”, wriitten by Clement C Englert, C.SS.R., copyright 1961,I have gathered that “porneia” is the greek translation of the Hebrew word describing a marriage invalid by Jewish Laws.

Clement Englert uses as his reference the scholarly work by Father J. Bonsirven, S.J., “Le Divorce dans le Nouveau Testament” (Paris 1948) where Father Bonsirven clearly shows that porneia means “concubinage”.

(I am going to paraphrase and shorten some of the arguments the author presents.)

One place to see this is in 1 Cor 5:1 where a man is “reprobated” for marrying his stepmother. Paul uses “porneia” there.

Further, examining the results of the Jerusalem council, we see that one of the things that gentiles were to refrain from was “porneia”. Why would they be required not to be immoral in any case? Wouldn’t that be a given for all races? How would that be infringing on the consciences of Jews, as strangled animals and blood would be?

Lastly, in the epistle to the Hebrews 12:16, Esau was called immoral (pornos) although we find no mention of his sexual sins… However we do know that he married a Hittite woman.

Sounds like a good start to an argument to me!

peace
steve