A
Acecrusader
Guest
I was presented with this chart one day by a “Dr. Jack Moorman” that showed the KJV and protestants came from a seperate timeline then the Catholics way did. He presented the Catholics as part of the “Alexendria textline” and protestants as part of the “Antioch textline”. Is their any easy way to explain or debunk this? Also KJV onlyism in general?