M
Matthias123
Guest
I know there have been many threads on the subject of alcohol consumption. However I feel I need to bring this subject up once again to help me illuminate the grey area.
What is the grey area? Well church teaching tells us that drunkenness is a mortal sin. My first response to this statement is “define drunkenness”. Obviously intoxication will eventually lead to the point where there is no question about the state of mind of the individual. I am interested in defining when one “crosses the line” in order inform my own conscience.
Until recently I have always defended the idea that you become drunk when you have degraded your reasoning faculties to the point where it makes sinning likely. However I read a post by a Bro. Ignatius Mary a few days ago. (He is an American demonologist and occult expert.) I won’t go into why he was making the post because it is not relevant. He said that being tipsy (in the dictionary it means slightly intoxicated) is still intoxicated and is a mortal sin.
This seemed correct and I accepted it. However this lead me to wonder if the word buzzed also meant slightly intoxicated. If it did and I followed Bro. Ignatius’s logic it would also mean being buzzed would be a mortal sin. The definition for buzzed is “A state of pleasant intoxication, as from alcohol.” Until now I had always thought that is was not a sin to get buzzed as long as you didn’t compromise your reasoning faculties to the point where it makes you likely to sin.
I then looked up the dictionary meaning of intoxicated it is “affected by a substance that intoxicates; drunk; inebriated.”
So according to this dictionary definition having one beer would lead to intoxication because you are affected by a substance that intoxicates. Therefore could it be possible that the word intoxicated could not be the same as drunk in every context? Is it morally permissible to be in a state of pleasant intoxication as long as it doesn’t degrade your reasoning faculties to the point where sinning becomes likely?
What is the grey area? Well church teaching tells us that drunkenness is a mortal sin. My first response to this statement is “define drunkenness”. Obviously intoxication will eventually lead to the point where there is no question about the state of mind of the individual. I am interested in defining when one “crosses the line” in order inform my own conscience.
Until recently I have always defended the idea that you become drunk when you have degraded your reasoning faculties to the point where it makes sinning likely. However I read a post by a Bro. Ignatius Mary a few days ago. (He is an American demonologist and occult expert.) I won’t go into why he was making the post because it is not relevant. He said that being tipsy (in the dictionary it means slightly intoxicated) is still intoxicated and is a mortal sin.
This seemed correct and I accepted it. However this lead me to wonder if the word buzzed also meant slightly intoxicated. If it did and I followed Bro. Ignatius’s logic it would also mean being buzzed would be a mortal sin. The definition for buzzed is “A state of pleasant intoxication, as from alcohol.” Until now I had always thought that is was not a sin to get buzzed as long as you didn’t compromise your reasoning faculties to the point where it makes you likely to sin.
I then looked up the dictionary meaning of intoxicated it is “affected by a substance that intoxicates; drunk; inebriated.”
So according to this dictionary definition having one beer would lead to intoxication because you are affected by a substance that intoxicates. Therefore could it be possible that the word intoxicated could not be the same as drunk in every context? Is it morally permissible to be in a state of pleasant intoxication as long as it doesn’t degrade your reasoning faculties to the point where sinning becomes likely?