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Has there been a huge rivalry between the Duoay Rheims Bible of 1609 of the Roman Catholics and the King James Bible of 1611 of the English Protestants in England and other English speaking countries?
It would have been same as the rivalry between Protestantism and Roman Catholicism was at that point I presumeHas there been a huge rivalry between the Duoay Rheims Bible of 1609 of the Roman Catholics and the King James Bible of 1611 of the English Protestants in England and other English speaking countries?
But then I have also met people who call the KJV “The King James Perversion” and say that it is traditional which to many today is almost a swear word. I would assume there are people who would say the same about the Douay-Rheims simply because it’s old.I find people to this day that claim that the KJV is the only inspired word of God. Most of the time after talking to them for 15 min I realize they are nutcases and with them a pleasant afternoon.
that made me laugh!I find people to this day that claim that the KJV is the only inspired word of God. Most of the time after talking to them for 15 min I realize they are nutcases and with them a pleasant afternoon.
If the King James Bible was good enough for the Apostle Paul, it’s good enough for me!I find people to this day that claim that the KJV is the only inspired word of God. Most of the time after talking to them for 15 min I realize they are nutcases and with them a pleasant afternoon.
Never heard of that, though I have heard conservative Evangelicals talk about translation errors in the KJV.But then I have also met people who call the KJV “The King James Perversion” and say that it is traditional which to many today is almost a swear word. I would assume there are people who would say the same about the Douay-Rheims simply because it’s old.
Haha. Funny. I find King James only people to be ignorant. Have they ever stopped to think that Jesus could not have spoken King James English?If the King James Bible was good enough for the Apostle Paul, it’s good enough for me!
http://3.bp.blogspot.com/_mCP73xf63vY/TJu8wP8ZdxI/AAAAAAAAAMQ/Z8Mr9VPawoA/s320/preacher1.jpg
Yes…the Lord’s Prayer in Aramaic is quite different. There are even different versions of the Lord’s Prayer in Aramaic. Certainly none of them are exactly what Jesus said, nor is the KJV version, or the DR version. But they are all close enough!Haha. Funny. I find King James only people to be ignorant. Have they ever stopped to think that Jesus could not have spoken King James English?
That’s because Tobit is a particularly tricky book to translate. All in all, you have at least THREE source texts, which do not always agree with each other, to translate from: a short Greek version, known as Greek I (preferred by most translations before the 1950s - this is the one found in the RSV), a longer Greek version, aka Greek II (the text of choice after the Aramaic and Hebrew fragments of Tobit discovered at Qumran are found to agree with this version - this is the source text for the NAB’s Tobit), and the Vulgate (which is, essentially, a translation of a translation - St. Jerome having translated the Hebrew translation of an Aramaic version of the text into Latin).Never heard of that, though I have heard conservative Evangelicals talk about translation errors in the KJV.
But at the heart of both “KJV-only” and “DR-only” positions is an uncomfortable truth: most modern Bible versions raise two major concerns:
- the omission of certain passages, not always for convincing reasons (for example, Tobit 6 reads very differently in the DR and in modern Catholic Bibles), and
Not really, no. The Rheims NT-Douai OT were really only came to the limelight somewhat ironically when an anti-Catholic named William Fulke brought it to public attention. According to the Wiki article on the D-R:Has there been a huge rivalry between the Duoay Rheims Bible of 1609 of the Roman Catholics and the King James Bible of 1611 of the English Protestants in England and other English speaking countries?
Compare it with Greek II’s text (from the New English Translation of the Septuagint):So yeah, here is how a part of Tobit 6 is attested in the Dead Sea Scrolls:
Well, Jesus was voted by 1% of the population of the U.S. of A. as the greatest American of all time.Haha. Funny. I find King James only people to be ignorant. Have they ever stopped to think that Jesus could not have spoken King James English?
Once again, thanks for the fantastic research!And finally from the Vulgate (Challoner):
(16) Then the angel Raphael said to him: Hear me, and I will show you who they are, over whom the devil can prevail. (17) For they who in such manner receive matrimony, as to shut out God from themselves, and from their mind, and to give themselves to their lust, as the horse and mule, which have not understanding, over them the devil has power. (18) But you when you shall take her, go into the chamber, and for three days keep yourself continent from her, and give yourself to nothing else but to prayers with her. (19) And on that night lay the liver of the fish on the fire, and the devil shall be driven away. (20) But the second night you shall be admitted into the society of the holy Patriarchs. (21) And the third night you shall obtain a blessing that sound children may be born of you. (22) And when the third night is past, you shall take the virgin with the fear of the Lord, moved rather for love of children than for lust, that in the seed of Abraham you may obtain a blessing in children.
Reading the Douay-Challoner version for the first time I was a little taken back by some of the obscure (to me) words. Such as where many translations refer to Passover, the Douay uses a word “azymes” which I had never heard of.Once again, thanks for the fantastic research!You’re one of my heroes here on CAF.
I somehow assumed that the version above (being in the Vulgate) was the one that would be authoritative for Catholics - not only because it’s in the Vulgate, but because it fits in well with traditional Catholic ideas about periodic continence and the purpose of marriage. I’ve read the NAB and RSV versions too, and wondered why they’d left this out. On scholarly grounds, which is the “best” or “closest to the original” reading?![]()
As said, the fragments of Tobit from Qumran agree substantially with Greek II (the longer version) with minor variants. Incidentally, Greek II in its full form is attested only in Codex Sinaiticus: most other manuscripts have the shorter version, while a couple have bits of the longer version embedded within the Greek I text.Once again, thanks for the fantastic research!You’re one of my heroes here on CAF.
I somehow assumed that the version above (being in the Vulgate) was the one that would be authoritative for Catholics - not only because it’s in the Vulgate, but because it fits in well with traditional Catholic ideas about periodic continence and the purpose of marriage. I’ve read the NAB and RSV versions too, and wondered why they’d left this out. On scholarly grounds, which is the “best” or “closest to the original” reading?![]()
One advantage of the “thee/thou” language is that it tells us whether Our Lord is talking to one person in particular, or his entire audience (and consequently, possibly ourselves). Modern English just uses “you” for both forms, so we lose this distinction. I can’t tell you how many arguments I’ve heard over who “you” refers to. If only I’d had a DR back then!
- uses contemporary, but formal and reverent language (i.e. is poetic, but not necessarily with "thee"s and "thou"s)
Excellent point.One advantage of the “thee/thou” language is that it tells us whether Our Lord is talking to one person in particular, or his entire audience (and consequently, possibly ourselves). Modern English just uses “you” for both forms, so we lose this distinction. I can’t tell you how many arguments I’ve heard over who “you” refers to. If only I’d had a DR back then!