It should be noted that one of the authorities Graham quoted was probably in error.
It would be in Chapter XI where he quotes ‘But as of the earlier period, so of this, there are none but fragmentary remains, the “many copies” which remained when Cranmer wrote in 1540 having doubtless disappeared in the vast and ruthless destruction of libraries which took place within a few years after that date’
It appears Cranmer was probably in error when he talks of many Bibles being available before Wycliffe’s translation. What probably happened was that Wycliffe’s first translation, which had no name or anything on it was mistaken for the work of others.
We don’t know absolutely for certain, but the evidence points that way. For instance we have no surviving copies of the supposed translations, now maybe they all were destroyed, or if you looked and recognized them as an early Wycliffe they would appear to have disappeared.
And we just don’t have references to a printing or distribution in any sort of numbers of any translation to fit the story. If such a translation or translations existed, they have been lost to history at least for now. The earlier translations were really in what effectively was a different language, and there were parts translated at the time, especially the Psalms. But the preponderance of the evidence at this time favors that there was no complete Bible in the language of the people of England at the time of Wycliffe before he made one.
And if Wycliffe’s translation taught false doctrine, as is commonly stated, then it should be a relatively simple thing to show how it is a false translation from the Vulgate. It is of course a translation of a translation and that should be kept in mind as should the scribal errors such as the Johannine Comma that had crept into many Latin manuscripts which is reflected in Wycliffe’s translation, but those things kept in mind, it does not read as a poor translation.
JJ