Z
zaida
Guest
Hi everyone - From my reading it is my understanding that some of the early Church Fathers acknowledged that people who were “seemingly” outside of the Church could be “saved”…(origen talking about Socrates and his “logos”, Paul himself discussing people who “followed the law as written in their hearts…”)…Then it seems that many Popes made very STRONG statements that there is “no salvation outside the Church” but did not qualify it by saying there might be those who are in the Church because the actively seek God. The Popes just made these (seemingly) harsh statements…then, in the 19th and 20th centuries, qualifications seemed to be added, culminating in Vatican II, acknowledging that people not seemingly in the Church mught nevertheless be saved…(thos einvincibly ignorant, who no fault of their own, etc…)…
So! Was there a discontinuity? Trying to be academically honest, it feels and seems like a discontinuity…As if we went from the early church fathers, who were in a sense “inclusivist”, to the Popes in between, who were hard line, and then back to an inclusivist stance…
Any thoughts on this?
Thanks!
So! Was there a discontinuity? Trying to be academically honest, it feels and seems like a discontinuity…As if we went from the early church fathers, who were in a sense “inclusivist”, to the Popes in between, who were hard line, and then back to an inclusivist stance…
Any thoughts on this?
Thanks!