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haparker321
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I’m afraid it’s not. I raised an objection that demands an answer. If this be my error, you must prove that those are one and the same.This is your error.
Parker
I’m afraid it’s not. I raised an objection that demands an answer. If this be my error, you must prove that those are one and the same.This is your error.
Of course not! The passage is not an attempt to “define” Sacred Tradition, which had already been defined for them. It is a commandment that they are to keep the Word of God, whether it came to them in writing, or orally. It is a reference to the two strands of Apostolic Teaching.Code:The verse and the entire passage doesn't define tradition the way you think it does. You must be begging the question.
Right. The Sacred Tradition preceeded the Scripture, and is not dependent upon it.But its basis is found on Scriptural teaching, some of those ‘sacred traditions’ you keep quoting aren’t.
Fortunately your personal opinion is just that.Code:I personally think for anyone to make it a dogmatic teaching would be wrong because it's not something binding for the believer.
What legitimacy is that, pray?Readers,
While I believe there may be some legitimacy to honor the authority of oral tradition i.e., in the sense of scriptural teaching, …
Perhaps you will explain why you think the HS leads individual believers in opposite directions?The real question should be, ‘Does the Holy Spirit allow varied interpretations?’ to which I would reply, yes.
LOLYou’re not asking yourself the right questions, that’s why.
Parker
OK. Let’s start with Genesis. How did all of history, from Adam to Moses, get kept?I’m afraid it’s not. I raised an objection that demands an answer. If this be my error, you must prove that those are one and the same.
Parker
Anything from the Scriptures that are sufficient i.e., the doctrines can be concluded from a variety of Scriptural books.What would you consider acceptable proof?
Most of the guys I’m quoting are post-Nicean unless I’m mistaken. The canon was well in existence by then.The Church fathers believed in things outside of scripture, in fact the ones you are quoting mostly subsisted on tradition because they hadn’t experienced an established cannon of New Testament scripture.
Then why would Peter/Paul consider Luke’s writings scripture?The writings of the apostles weren’t even clearly defined as scripture at that point.
I’m not disagreeing with that here, but the definition of tradition is quite different than what the Church defines it as.No one is trying to prove that Scripture and Tradition are one in the same because that isn’t what the Church teaches, they are two separate sources that are complimentary.
The moment the canon closed.At what year should they have closed off the ability of the faithful to produce new teachings?
The doctrine comes from a late source (450AD) which isn’t so historical as one hopes.How do you explain their belief in the Immaculate Assumption then?
Right you are and I got a slight idea where: MAN.Clearly they got that from somewhere. Obviously it wasn’t scripture.
I’m not disagreeing, but my conclusions are based on the implications the Early Church Fathers made with their writings. Sure these are not talking about Sola Scriptura in its immediate context, but they are implying the Scriptures are the sole source where the Church goes for faith and practice. The analogy goes like a group of lawyers using the US constitution as the basis for it’s laws and no where else to enforce the laws of the land.You are stretching their writings to mean something that was never intended. Yes the Church Fathers thought scripture was important, but everyone of your quotes is addressing something very specific. If you just take them in any context you want they can mean a lot of things.
And what rules have you been paying attention to lately? Have you actually adhered to a concise definition of what Sola Scriptura means?It seems to me that Sola Scriptura, if it represents a truthful doctrine, ought to play by its own rules.
That’s because our assumptions of Sola Scriptura rely heavily on implicit conclusions one can make from the Scriptures. Unfortunately, you are trying to pull a straw man.Even if one or more of the Early Church Fathers explicitly taught Sola Scriptura, one could still not use this as a defense of it unless it is also explicitly taught in the Bible.
That’s a pretty broad spectrum here because none of them were in existence prior to the writing of scripture. In other words, the canon was complete by the time ECF’s were born.What did the ECF’s do before scripture was written?
Again this depends on who and what are you talking about. Take for instance, the canon was written when Augustine, Cyril of Jerusalem, Jerome, and Origen were born. So they had easy access to the scriptures.Would you agree that it is probably a safe assumption to say that in the early years, say between 50 AD and 150 AD, that they (the ECFs) had not read most, or any, of what we would consider “Scripture”?
Because the Church did not need a council to recognize what the Scriptures were. Most if not all of them were recognized and practiced as Scripture prior to the council of Nicea which took place in 333/365AD.If this is the case, wouldn’t it make sense that somewhere after scripture was at least widely distributed (let’s say between 200 AD to when scripture was codified around 400 AD) that one of them would have written something along the lines of “We now have these texts which we have determined to be inspired by God, and therein lie all that we are to follow”?
In the last thread, I never said the word of God was not spoken at one point.I think the big thing that Sola Scripturists miss is that there was a time when there was no scripture
You mean the Catholic Church existed prior to the creation of the Old Testament? I didn’t know that.You do realize the Catholic Church created the Bible?
One draws conclusions from the definitions put forth by the advocates of Sola Scriptura and the implications put forth by the word of God.And if Scripture is the sole rule of faith then where in Scripture does it say that?
Along with 400 + other writings also claiming to be scripture.Most of the guys I’m quoting are post-Nicean unless I’m mistaken. The canon was well in existence by then.
What makes you think they did?Then why would Peter/Paul consider Luke’s writings scripture?
So, you want the Church to reject their own definition in favor of yours?I’m not disagreeing with that here, but the definition of tradition is quite different than what the Church defines it as.
Do you even know when this happened?The moment the canon closed.
Well, then you are in real trouble. Get back to us when you get the date the canon was closed.The doctrine comes from a late source (450AD) which isn’t so historical as one hopes.
Of course it is important for you to believe this.Right you are and I got a slight idea where: MAN.
NO, they dont’. They are authoritative, and essential, but they are not the sole source. When you read the remainder of the writings this will become clear. It appears you cherry picked the parts on Scripture and ignored those on the Sacred Tradition.I’m not disagreeing, but my conclusions are based on the implications the Early Church Fathers made with their writings. Sure these are not talking about Sola Scriptura in its immediate context, but they are implying the Scriptures are the sole source where the Church goes for faith and practice.
Lawyers don’t enforce the laws of the land. Those with jurisdictional authority do. The ECF’s did not posess the juridictional authority. Some of them were bishops, but it is the TEaching authority put in place by Christ that enforces.The analogy goes like a group of lawyers using the US constitution as the basis for it’s laws and no where else to enforce the laws of the land.
Ok, I think I’ve defined Sola Scriptura as this on a previous post.Parker,
I would like to contribute, but I can’t find a succinct definition of how you define “Sola Scriptura”. I don’t want to claim that I agree with you until I am more informed of what you believe regarding this important topic.
I have read half a dozen good ones - none of them are found in the Scriptures.Code:And what rules have you been paying attention to lately? Have you actually adhered to a concise definition of what Sola Scriptura means?
I wonder how it is that you can make “implicit conclusions” from the Scriptures, but when Catholics do it ,we are teaching "false doctrines’. Isn’t that an interesting double standard now?ParkerCode:That's because our assumptions of Sola Scriptura rely heavily on implicit conclusions one can make from the Scriptures. Unfortunately, you are trying to pull a straw man.
I think you need some more time in your early canonical studes, there, Parker. One of theECF’s is Polycarp, who was baptized by the Apostle John, quite some time before John finished writing.That’s a pretty broad spectrum here because none of them were in existence prior to the writing of scripture. In other words, the canon was complete by the time ECF’s were born.
Yes, but they were scholars and bishops. The vast majority of the Church did not have access to the writings. They had to be hand copied, usually by candlelight (in secret). They were too rare and expensive for most people to posess.Code:Again this depends on who and what are you talking about. Take for instance, the canon was written when Augustine, Cyril of Jerusalem, Jerome, and Origen were born. So they had easy access to the scriptures.
If that is true, then why did the Church decide to have a council to recognize which writings were Scripture (inspired by the HS)? Why were some writings being read regularly at Church that did not make it into the canon?Because the Church did not need a council to recognize what the Scriptures were. Most if not all of them were recognized and practiced as Scripture prior to the council of Nicea which took place in 333/365AD.
Can you show in the Bible where this stopped?In the last thread, I never said the word of God was not spoken at one point.
Parker
The real question should be, ‘Does the Holy Spirit allow varied interpretations?’ to which I would reply, yes.
And the resultant confusion, division, different beliefs, continued rebellion…the Holy Spirit also condones?
I have read half a dozen good ones - none of them are found in the Scriptures.Code:And what rules have you been paying attention to lately? Have you actually adhered to a concise definition of what Sola Scriptura means?
I wonder how it is that you can make “implicit conclusions” from the Scriptures, but when Catholics do it ,we are teaching "false doctrines’. Isn’t that an interesting double standard now?ParkerCode:That's because our assumptions of Sola Scriptura rely heavily on implicit conclusions one can make from the Scriptures. Unfortunately, you are trying to pull a straw man.
You mean the Catholic Church existed prior to the creation of the Old Testament? I didn’t know that.
One draws conclusions from the definitions put forth by the advocates of Sola Scriptura and the implications put forth by the word of God.
Parker
Have you considered that infalliblity requires falliblity? In order to be infallible, one must be able to act, to decide, to take responsibility,and to accept the blame. Scripture lacks these qualities. Authority, for that reason, can only be exercised by persons, not books, however holy.Ok, I think I’ve defined Sola Scriptura as this on a previous post.
Sola Scriptura (bible alone) is the principle that the Holy Scriptures are the only source that carries the weight of infallible authority in the Church’s faith and practice.
This would be an interesting thread. I am curious what authority the bible designates to the Church.Everything a person finds as part of his essential Christian beliefs (including Salvation) can be sufficiently derived from the Scriptures.
This brief statement has never implied:
- No authority because the Scriptures designate authority to the Church.
Does this not require authority? Or are you one of those that believes in “fraternal discipline” that has no enforcement value?Code:* No discipline because the Scriptures encourage the Church to take up this practice.
And if the Bible is the final authority, how is it decided when the interpretive abuse has occurred? What if both parties support opposing views with scripture?Code:* No interpretative abuses because the Scriptures warn the Church about the dangers of heresy.
Really?Code:* No universal interpretation because the Scriptures make room for adiaphoristic differences (e.g. church government and the sacraments).
It will be interesting to find out what you feel is included in this.Code:* No oral tradition because the Scriptures informs the Church of its importance and commands us to adhere to them.
Yes, but they also reveal that the fullness of God’s revelation was found in Christ. End of story.Code:* No progressive revelation because the Scriptures revealed of its existence in the past.
Parker,Quote:
Did Jesus or any of the Apostles practice sola scriptura?
without a doubt, Jesus extended and clarified what was said in the Old Testament. You are right that he didn’t contradict the Old Testament, because it came to be through him, but to say he practiced Sola Scriptura, that everything necessary for Salvation was written in the Old Testament that existed at the time, is to eliminate the need for a New Testament.
Jesus fulfilled the Old Testament Prophesies. The Apostles used the Old Testament to show that they Pointed to Jesus as the Christ. But you certainly can not prove that the Old Testament contained all the information needed for the salvation of souls. This negates your claim that Jesus and the Apostles practiced sola Scriptura.
"He, therefore, will not be a Christian who shall deny this doctrine which is confessed by Christians; denying it, moreover, on grounds which are adopted by a man who is not a Christian. Take away, indeed, from the heretics the wisdom which they share with the heathen, and let them support their inquiries from the Scriptures alone: they will then be unable to keep their ground." Tertullian, On the Resurrection of the Flesh,3The burden of proof lies on the Church to prove that ‘Sacred Tradition’ and ‘Oral Tradition’ are one and the same.
Parker
This is really the nub of the issue, isn’t it. You reject Papal authority, so you have no other choice but to hang to scripture as the only link you have to Christ. But Jesus didn’t leave the scripture to teach the truth about salvation and administer the sacraments, he left a Church to do that. Have you read Matthew 28: 16-20?Quote:
Originally Posted by Randy Carson
That make sense given that you do not understand that the Church teaches with the authority of Christ Himself.
Now, it is an historic fact that the Catholic Church is the same church that was commissioned by Jesus on this mountain to spread the gospel. It can be shown that these same Apostles and in the case of Mark and Luke, their followers, wrote the New Testament books. And it can be shown through the early Church Fathers, that these boos were protected by the Church and eventually compiled into the Bible Canon by the Catholic Church as a teaching and liturgical tool. So how do you propose to prove that the Catholic Church is not the true Church. We just finished a 900 post thread on this subject earlier this week.16 The eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain to which Jesus had ordered them.
17 When they saw him, they worshiped, but they doubted.
18 Then Jesus approached and said to them, “All power in heaven and on earth has been given to me.
19 Go, therefore, and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the holy Spirit,
20 teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you. And behold, I am with you always, until the end of the age.”
→ Algo1 agreed that the Catholic Church was the true church but apostasized. He could not define when or where this occurred but offered that there were different interpretations of the real presence over time. He eventually gave up on trying to sow that the Church apostasized, since he had no evidence that this was so.
→ Miguel Sastre argued in the same thread that the Catholic Church was never the Apostolic Church, offering instead that the church was simply a community of all believers in Christ. He offered up as proof of his position that Cyprian didn’t always believe in Papal primacy. He ran into huge problems here, because Pope St. Stephen simply refused to continue to communicate with Cyprian after Cyprian refused to recognize Stephen’s authority, which placed Cyprian outside the church. As for the invisible Church, Miguel was simply unable to explain away the fact that the Apostolic church was meant to be visible becuase how else could it teach the truths about the faith. Miguel too gave up.
So, Harper, what is your theory about the true Church? Do you feel that the Catholic Church, led by the Pope, apostasized and is no longer the true church? If so, when was this great apostacy, what was it, and why did Jesus allow his church to falter, when he said that he would be with it to the end of the age (above)?
Or perhaps, you feel the Catholic Church was never the true church. Well, what is the true church then?
This is applicable to this thread because it answers your question above…
This is frankly, foolishness. There is only one truth and the Holy Spirit leads us to it. It is Satan that leads to disunity and tries to obscure the truth with confusion over doctrine.Quote:
Originally Posted by Kirk O
Do you think the Holy Spirit would lead two believers into different interpretations of the Bible?
Pray tell, Parker, where in scripture does it say that the holy spirit will lead different people to separate doctrines?