C
Contarini
Guest
By definition I’m talking “Tradition”–that’s what I meant by “relevant detail.” But obviously neither your Communion or any other can simply label whatever you choose “tradition” and thus declare it irrelevant. That’s cheating. Anyone can make the case for identity with the early Church on such a basis–though for some that would mean making the list of “basics” very short!Are you talking Tradition or tradition.
Note: I don’t mean that the Tradition/tradition distinction is cheating. I mean that using it to simply rule out of court any points on which your belief and practice differ from that of the early Church–in the context of a discussion among Christians regarding our relative continuity or discontinuity with the early Church–is cheating.
Well, both of those are actually attempts to return to the practice of the early Church, particularly the second (but the first too–Latin was, after all, initially adopted because it was the vernacular!). The fact that you regard the medieval/early modern practice as the ancient one itself says something about the problems with your understanding of tradition (and maybe even of Tradition).Some details have changed over the centuries. We now have the mass in the vernacular instead of in Latin.
We take communion standing up, rather than kneeling.
Some might argue that having Mass in a language “understanded of the people” (to quote a sixteenth-century Anglican text) is pretty basic, and that the early Church would have had huge problems with the idea of celebrating Mass in a language unintelligible to the people. Witness the fact that the Mass was celebrated in Latin once the Church in the West came to be made up largely of Latin-speakers instead of Greek-speakers (there were a lot of Greek-speakers throughout the Empire, many of them freed slaves, and these seem to have been the early nucleus for the Church in Rome and other parts of the Western Empire). The idea that you should go on celebrating Mass in a language no longer understood by the people arguably reflected not just a natural liturgical conservatism but also the view that the Mass was a propitiatory sacrifice offered uniquely by the priest (in persona Christi) to the Father, rather than being the sacrifice of praise and thanksgiving offered by the entire worshiping community in union with the one sacrifice of Christ. We could of course argue about the terms in which I’ve just stated this. Clearly St. John Chrysostom and other fourth-century Fathers spoke of the Mass as a propitiatory sacrifice. And clearly St. Ignatius was already making comparisons between Christian presbyters and OT priests in the early 2nd century. So arguably what happened was a narrowing of focus rather than the emergence of a genuinely new idea. But the point I’m making is precisely that we *could *argue about it. It’s not self-evident that the willingness to celebrate Mass in a language no longer understood by the people was doctrinally irrelevant, or that the doctrine it reflected was that of the earlier Church.
The same is true to a much lesser extent of the standing/kneeling issue. I do see this as an adiaphoron–in fact I like both postures and see value in both. But again, the switch to kneeling reception in the High Middle Ages (at least I think that’s when it happened–I know that this is when kneeling became the posture during the Eucharistic Prayer) arguably reflected significant changes in medieval piety.
The basics remain the same:
- Authority of Church in Rome
Nothing about Rome here.BIBLE
Matthew 16:18
18
And so I say to you, you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church, 13 and the gates of the netherworld shall not prevail against it.
As you may know, it’s not clear in the Latin that Irenaeus is referring to the Church rather than the city; the phrase “superior origin” is actually “potiorem principatum” which is more literally “greater primacy” and may quite likely refer to the authority and influence of the *city *of Rome; and the Latin “convenire” which your translation reads “agree” may also mean “come together.” So Irenaeus may simply be saying that Christians from all over the world come to Rome and so it’s the best place to look for apostolic tradition. I think he’s saying more than that. But again, the point is that learned people have looked at this text and read it in different ways.I’m not going to argue with you about apostolic succession, because while we can argue that there are some differences in how the early Church saw it and how different Christian churches see it today, the basic concept is clearly there (I think Roman primacy is too, but not necessarily infallibility or some of the other things on which your Communion insists with regard to Rome; and as I said many learned people disagree with me on Roman primacy).
- St. Irenaeus
I’m an Anglican, so accepting apostolic succession does not bother me! The only point where I’d question apostolic succession would be the claim that sacramental validity depends on it. That doesn’t seem to be something the Fathers are addressing. (Ignatius does speak of a non-episcopal or non-episcopally authorized Eucharist as not being “bebaia,” which could be translated as “valid”–but I think what he means by it is more like what Catholics today would mean by “licit”).
And the bigger point is: why are there only two basics, and why these two?
Edwin