J
justasking4
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guanophore;3367088]
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Originally Posted by justasking4
Are you saying people were praying the hail Mary in the 2nd - 3rd centuries?
i know its claimed to be a scriptural prayer but did people in theguanophore
yes. It is just a scriptural prayer.
2nd-3rd centuries pary the hail Mary?
Let me answer my own question with this quote from the New Advent which says this about its origins–“In point of fact there is little or no trace of the Hail Mary as an accepted devotional formula before about 1050. All the evidence suggests that it took its rise from certain versicles and responsories occurring in the Little Office or Cursus of the Blessed Virgin which just at that time was coming into favour among the monastic orders.”
What this clearly shows is that the Hail Mary prayer was not a part of the early church.
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Originally Posted by justasking4
Secondly, the reciting of the Psallms is not the same as saying the rosary.
guanophore
That depends. The Psalms were Jesus’ prayer book. It was customary for observant Jews to pray the Psalms daily. Some Christians had them all memorized, and prayed 150 daily. They used a string of beads to keep track. When the prayers of devotion were introduced to some who had not memorized all the Psalms, they used different prayers on the beads.
Quote:
Originally Posted by justasking4
Third, the rosary did not come about for centuries.
This alone shows this was not a practice of the early church.
guanophore
Using a string of beads for prayers and meditation is a very ancient practice. Granted, the prayer beads were not called a Rosary until late middle ages.
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Originally Posted by justasking4
Lets take the Assumption of Mary. …
What this shows is that the early church did not believe in her assumption. This is another indicator that the early church was not Roman Catholic.
Here is what the New Advent says about her supposed assumption–“Regarding the day, year, and manner of Our Lady’s death, nothing certain is known. The earliest known literary reference to the Assumption is found in the Greek work De Obitu S. Dominae. Catholic faith, however, has always derived our knowledge of the mystery from Apostolic Tradition. Epiphanius (d. 403) acknowledged that he knew nothing definite about it (Haer., lxxix, 11). The dates assigned for it vary between three and fifteen years after Christ’s Ascension. Two cities claim to be the place of her departure: Jerusalem and Ephesus. Common consent favours Jerusalem, where her tomb is shown; but some argue in favour of Ephesus. The first six centuries did not know of the tomb of Mary at Jerusalem.”guanophore
Yes and no. The early church did believe in the assumption of Mary.
I think even you would agree this was not a belief of the early church.
However, the Roman Rite was not separate the majority of the first millenia. For that reason, it cannot be said to be “Roman”.
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Originally Posted by justasking4
The early church did not believe many of the doctrines of the later Roman Catholic church. These few examples above show that.
I don’t think so. Devotions are an outworking of doctrines. When you look at the doctrines on Mary it logically follows that these devotions would follow from these doctrines.guanophore
I think you have your devotionals and disciplines confused with doctrines.
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Originally Posted by justasking4
The protestant churches i’m familar with don’t believe in these doctrines or practices so that would mean at least on these points protestants are more in line with the early church than the Roman Catholic church.
Yes. However there are a lot of distinctions among them that must be kept in mind.guanophore
Do you think that your personal experience is representative of Protestants around the world?