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Can one truly give full assent to a dogma if he or she knowingly rejects certain principles on which it is based? Eastern Catholics give assent to an Immaculate Conception, but is it accurate to say that they give assent to the Roman Catholic dogma of the Immaculate Conception as pronounced by Pius IX when they reject the foundational notions of ‘merit’ and of ‘stain’ of original sin?It does not have to be translated because it is assent that must be given (it must be firmly held), yet it does not have to be comprehended. A teaching may not even be comprehensible to a person.
Summa Theologica, St. Thomas Aquinas, Part_IIa/Q66 A5 - Reply to Objection 3Accordingly wisdom, to which knowledge about God pertains, is beyond the reach of man, especially in this life, so as to be his possession: for this “belongs to God alone” (Metaph. i, 2): and yet this little knowledge about God which we can have through wisdom is preferable to all other knowledge.
This comes full circle to the point of the thread because whether the answer is yes or no, there is an open question about how much leeway one has for rejecting key principles of dogma or for reconconceptualizing dogma.
Please understand I’m not implying Eastern Catholics are heretics! They have a different appproach. But it creates a theological conundrum–more for the West than for the East, perhaps.