Actually, He did no such thing.
According to the various accounts of His death, He cried “My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken Me?” He told the thieves that they would be with Him in paradise; He commended His mother to the care of His brother John, and said “Father, into Thy Hands I commend my Spirit.” None of the accounts has all these statements in it.
None of those words ‘clarify’ that God had not forsaken Him. The most you can say is that they indicate that HE had not forsaken His Father–but we already knew that; it was sort of the whole point of His life and death; He was betrayed on all sides, but He betrayed none.
You may consider that Jesus was quoting the psalm…but if so, He was certainly quoting it to some purpose–and that purpose was the same lament that the psalmist had; God had forsaken Him.
Personally, I think that in a way, He did. Oh, not really, but did God the Father withdraw all light from Christ so that He might experience everything WE do? A full measure of the sacrifice?
I think that perhaps He did. I don’t actually know, of course, but it seems somehow–appropriate. After all, as horrific as Christ’s death was, many, many people have suffered worse physical deaths. Longer, more painful, more denigrating. So what WAS it that made Christ’s experience so uniquely hard to bear, and so complete a sacrifice that it could redeem the world?
I’m simply musing, here, not arguing.