I
Irenicist
Guest
If I were to tell you, for example, that the Pope’s legates at Constantinople did not excommunicate all Easterners in 1054, but merely a small number of “contumacious” bishops and their supporters, and offered you the text of the bulls of excommunication and the statements of the legates in defence of their actions as evidence, but you kept insisting nonetheless that they had excommunicate all Easterners, I think that would qualify. There were other examples, but it was over a year ago and I can’t recall them specifically in any detail. If it doesn’t happen again, then fine, it means we don’t have that problem anymore.That’s way too subjective to be part of any credible definition. Who decides what is a “factual point”?
Well, I don’t know who was banned, so I really can’t say. I will admit, however, that since my return a few a days ago, I haven’t seen much in the way of this previously trollish behaviour by Orhtodox. There have been a few snide comments, but the only post that really crossed the line was followed by a prompt spontaneous apology. Someone else charged in waving the “h” word, but hasn’t repeated it since being corrected. So I guess things are looking up.And I won’t be shedding any tears over some of the Roman Catholics who bullied their way around the old forum. Besides, I think you’re being unfair to those who have now been banned. I know of only a couple Orthodox posters who were over-the-top. One was banned on the day (but before) the old forum was shut down.
I used to hold your view until I was corrected by a Church historian. It’s really very easy to project to familiar into the past. I checked it out and he was correct. I cannot speak for the East, but in the West church marriages were very rare until the 13th century. When married pagans were converted there is no evidence they were married again a second time, or that a particular effort was made to bless their marriage separately after their conversion.This is a change of the doctrine of the ancient Church, which was that a marriage is made sacramental by the blessing of the Church. I suspect that this novel idea comes from the innovative belief of Catholicism that the couple, as opposed to the priest, confects the sacrament of Matrimony.
Peter was married before becoming an Apostle. Is there any evidence his marriage was subsequently blessed? It might of been, but absence of scriptural evidence to this effect, considering all the Pauline discourse concerning marriage, is telling. Also requiring a priest to confer sacramental validity to a marriage suggests that a community without a priest (or deacon) can have no marriage.
Church blessing of a marriage is certainly an ancient practice, but Paul is quite clear that you are not free to walk away if you both share the faith. He says nothing about Church blessings. If you are not free to walk away, does that not imply your marriage is true in the eyes of God and thus sacramental?
There are also other ways in which East and West differ regarding the sacraments. Catholics believe, for examples, that even pagans can baptize, if they use proper form and matter and have the appropriate intent. I have been told that Orthodox take a more clericalist view of the sacraments, but I stand to be corrected.
Irenicist