Eastern Orthodoxy and Protestantism’s Infallibility Problem

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As Fr Harrison, O.S., points out grave problems exist with the Orthodox position:
‘In short, any Orthodox attempt to formulate a theological definition of “the whole Church” in terms of any empirically verifiable criterion – for instance, as the community of those who have undergone the visible, audible and tangible sacrament of baptism, or of those who visibly and audibly call themselves Christians, or of those who visibly and audibly profess their communion with certain publicly identifiable prelates who in turn hold ecclesiastical office at some fixed, highly visible and publicly identified city – any such attempt will land our Eastern brethren in impossible absurdities. So the only other course open to them, logically, is to attempt to define “the whole Church” in terms of an empirically unverifiable criterion, namely, adherence to true, orthodox doctrine. Unlike cities, sayings and sacraments, doctrinal orthodoxy cannot be recognized as such by any of the five senses. It cannot, as such, be seen, touched or heard, only discerned in the mind and heart.

‘**Proposition 3: Infallibility is to be recognized in the solemn doctrinal decisions of those Councils which are not only papally confirmed as ecumenical, but which are also subsequently accepted as such by the whole community of those Christians who adhere to true doctrine.
**
‘But here, I am afraid, we come face to face with the fundamental logical flaw in the whole Eastern Orthodox account of how we can know what – if anything – God has revealed to mankind. Since Christ founded his Church on earth to be a visible community, we cannot define her in terms of an invisible criterion – possession of doctrinal truth – without falling into absurdity. The flaw this involves is that of a circular argument – or, if you like, including the term to be defined within the definition itself. This results in a mere tautology: a self-repeating affirmation that provides no information at all.

‘**Proposition 4: Christians can come to know with certainty what is true doctrine by recognizing the solemn doctrinal decisions of those Councils which are not only papally confirmed as ecumenical, but which are also subsequently accepted as such by the whole community of those Christians who adhere to true doctrine.

The words italicized above lay bare the underlying circularity – the tautology – that vitiates the logical coherence of Eastern Orthodox Christianity, therefore destroying its rational credibility. We want to know how to identify true Christian doctrine with certainty; but the proffered answer to our problem assumes we already know the very thing we are seeking to discover! We are being told, “To discover what is true Christian doctrine, you must pay heed to the teaching of those who adhere to true Christian doctrine”!

‘In Eastern Orthodoxy, on the other hand, the currently growing problem of internal confusion and division goes down to a deeper level. It is rooted in unsound principle, not just defective practice. It is a problem involving the essential defining feature of the Orthodox communion over against Catholicism, namely, its fateful medieval decision to repudiate the full primacy and authority of that ‘Rock’ established by Christ in the person of Blessed Peter and his successors in the See of Rome. Perhaps, if more of our Orthodox brethren can come to recognize the underlying logical flaw in their ecclesiology that I have tried to p(name removed by moderator)oint and explain in this talk, we shall see more fruitful ecumenical progress toward the restoration of full communion.
Note:
‘3 A standard textbook of Orthodox dogmatic teaching puts it thus: “True Councils – those which express Orthodox faith – are accepted by the Church’s catholic * consciousness; false councils – those which teach heresy or reject some aspect of the Church’s Tradition – are rejected by the same Catholic consciousness. The Orthodox Church is the Church not of ‘councils’ as such, but only of the true councils, inspired by the Holy Spirit, which conform to the Church’s catholic consciousness” (M. Pomazansky, Orthodox Dogmatic Theology: A Concise Exposition, 3rd edition (Platina California: St. Herman of Alaska Brotherhood, 2005), p. 41, n. 21. Pomazansky does not use the word “infallibility” here in connection with “true councils”, but that charism is clearly implied in different terminology when he asserts that they are “inspired by the Holy Spirit”. Notice, however, that even while he ascribes this awesome divine privilege to “true councils”, Pomazansky offers no criterion whatever for deciding which Christians are to be counted as belonging to “the Church”. Yet this is an absolutely crucial question, given that if it is answered incorrectly, the resulting “consciousness” of those consulted may, according to the Orthodox theory itself, reflect Satan-inspired heresy instead of Spirit-inspired truth.’ [My emphasis].
rtforum.org/lt/lt133.html

The Supremacy that Christ established in St Peter is challenged only by the ignorant, confused or those seeking some other doctrine.*
 
Another straw man. YOUR denomination is the one that bound itself to an infallible table of contents. Indeed, the debate is often framed by Roman Catholics to be that you either support a 73-book canon because the pope said so, or you support a 66-book canon because the books magically support each other (for which there is some merit). If you would have actually read the link I posted, you would understand that Lutheranism intentionally has never defined a canon. It’s not necessary to do so. You’re going to need to find another example; the canon is a separate issue here. Read the link.
Is the bible infallible? If yes, why?
Who said the church had to act solely through councils and popes? Are you seriously willing to limit the scope and power of the Spirit?
Good answer. I can see every Gnostic saying the same thing.
Is this what it’s all about? Having an infallible table of contents so you can call everyone else anathema? How medieval.
So, if a loved one of yours comes up to you one day and says: “Why are these books in the bible?” you have a good answer?
Yup. From Catholics who don’t understand that their tired polemics don’t work on Lutherans like they do other “Protestants.”
The tired polemics arguments go both ways.
You’ll have to find one so I can ask.
I worded that question wrong. I meant to ask who hold the bible as being authoritative.
You’ll have to show me a truly Ecumenical Council that’s erred. Or a truly Ecumenical Council that’s ever ruled on the canon. Local and heterodox councils err.
Finally. But that leads to this question. What is the criteria your denomination uses for determining what is a truly Ecumenical Council?
That would be absurd. Good thing that’s not what Lutherans teach. Care to actually read the article and try again?
So Lutherans do not think I should be bound by a fallible book? Great!!! Now tell me, what books belong in that bible so I can be sure to be inspired by all of God’s Word.
They have their own criteria. It’s a blatant lie to say that they (at least Orthodox and Lutherans) “don’t have one.” Don’t have one that supports a single bishop’s consolidation of power over an Ecumenical Council? Of course they wouldn’t!
The Orthodox don’t, at least not officially. That is why more that one Orthodox theologian has said they do not have criteria for knowing what makes a council Ecumenical. They have many theories, but not an official one. And I am waiting for the Lutheran criteria.
 
I’ll just leave this here…

Recently, at my Maronite parish, the Latin bishop came to celebrate the Roman Mass in honor of St. Sharbel on the occasion of the visit of his relics. An OCA bishop was present at the parish to venerate the relics too.

Both bishops met for the first time an hour or so before Mass. As Mass was starting, I was moved to see both bishops, one Latin Catholic and the other Orthodox, processing together side by side. Both bishops took places of honor relative to the other clergy on the bilmah and were incensed together.

The Latin bishop presided the liturgy, but the Orthodox bishop didn’t perform any function. However, at the liturgy of the Eucharist, the chasm between East and West opened before my eyes, for the Orthodox bishop not only merely watched as he was not invited to partake at the Eucharistic table.

I understand that the Latin bishop couldn’t have done differently, but my heart sank at this wound in the Body of Christ suppurating right before me. Two successors of the Apostles, equal in the charism of their Holy Orders, heads of local Churches, could not join around what was the one and same central fulcrum of the lives of both and their Churches: the Body and Blood, Soul and Divinity of the Lord Jesus.

It is a tragedy of a thousand years that is a scandal to the world! I study, converse, hope and pray that the Great Schism, by the grace of God, may be healed.

Pax Christi
Agreed
 
The poster has confused the Christo-centric mandate with his warped “view”.

The Christ didn’t prevaricate nor speculate – Jesus is God, and as God gave us His own Church when He proclaimed:
All four promises to Peter alone
“You are Peter and on this rock I will build My Church.” (Mt 16:18)
“The gates of hell will not prevail against it.”(Mt 16:18)
“I will give you the keys of the Kingdom of heaven." ( Mt 16:19)
“Whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven.” (Mt 16:19) [Later to the Twelve, also].
**
Sole authority**
“Strengthen your brethren.” (Lk 22:32)
“Feed My sheep.”(Jn 21:17).

So no one else was given this supreme authority given to Christ’s Supreme Vicar – “a sinful, human being to determine doctrine” by Christ’s personal explicit command. So if “Lutheranism needs no pope” it’s errors naturally follow without God’s guarantee of truth in dogma and doctrine.
There is no “missing link” except in the imagination, since God guaranteed the infallibility of His Catholic Church (see above) when teaching dogma and doctrine to the whole Church, so there is no “circular” “presumption”.

Since the infallible God gave us His [MY] Catholic Church (see above) guaranteeing Her binding and loosing, who are you to presume that He promulgated a monstrous lie?
Well said. 👍

Mary.
 
Is the bible infallible? If yes, why?
Yes, because it gives true witness to the apostolic faith. If you actually read the link I provided, you’d know that.
Good answer. I can see every Gnostic saying the same thing.
Even your communion recognizes that councils have erred, and that popes have erred. Your communion’s answer to that difficult quandary is to retroactively declare that a given pope wasn’t actually speaking ex cathedra, or that a given council wasn’t actually ecumenical. 🤷
So, if a loved one of yours comes up to you one day and says: “Why are these books in the bible?” you have a good answer?
Yep. If you actually read the link I provided, you’d know that.
I worded that question wrong. I meant to ask who hold the bible as being authoritative.
Well, I hold the bible to be authoritative just as you do. I also acknowledge the church’s duty to interpret the bible, just as you do. I also acknowledge that no individual has any “right” to interpret Holy Scripture in opposition to the apostolic witness proclaimed by the church. If you actually read the link I provided, you’d know that.

Where we differ is that I say the church can go no further than the apostolic witness recorded in Scripture goes, when pertaining to binding doctrines. You believe that your popes and councils may rule outside of Scripture, even without clear Scriptural backing. If we were jurists, I’d fit closer toward Scalia’s ‘originalist’ stance, while you’d consider the bible to be a malleable text, changing with the Zeitgeist. God’s Truth is the same for the Apostles, the same for the fathers, and the same for us today.
Finally. But that leads to this question. What is the criteria your denomination uses for determining what is a truly Ecumenical Council?
It’s similar to our criteria for which books qualify as canon. The council must conform to the apostolic witness of Scripture, and not bind the believer to doctrines outside the scope of the apostolic witness, and must be accepted by the church at large acting as a safeguard - this is the work of the Paraclete, Who is present in all believers and not confined to an arbitrary group of voting clerics. If you actually read the link I provided, you might have gleaned that.
Asking me, or anyone else to be bound by a book that was put together by a Church you claim to be fallible is absurd.
That would be absurd. Good thing that’s not what Lutherans teach. Care to actually read the article and try again?
So Lutherans do not think I should be bound by a fallible book? Great!!! Now tell me, what books belong in that bible so I can be sure to be inspired by all of God’s Word.
Look at this dialogue. Have you been fair to my point of view at all? No. You have engaged a straw man, again, and ignored what Lutherans actually believe. If you actually read the link I provided, you’d know that.
The Orthodox don’t, at least not officially. That is why more that one Orthodox theologian has said they do not have criteria for knowing what makes a council Ecumenical. They have many theories, but not an official one. And I am waiting for the Lutheran criteria.
My faith in the Holy Spirit is not so small as to require legalistic, set-in-stone, “our guy has all the answers to everything including the stuff God forgot to write down” criteria. I have outlined the boundaries Lutherans use to decide doctrinal questions. Within those boundaries, there is some latitude of Christian freedom; just as there used to be in the pre-Tridentine Church. A Lutheran is free to believe that Mary was Assumed into heaven, or not. Scripture is silent on the issue, so no binding doctrine can be made. But to the Roman Catholic, Roma locuta est, causa finita est. Now, when one man starts determining what constitutes binding doctrine (which can even bar an otherwise doctrinally sound Christian from Paradise) – well, surely you can see the historic Lutheran fear that someone has set himself over God.
 
See, how could it be in force in the East if the pope hadn’t approved it? Because his approval was not deemed necessary. Not to the Easterners, not to the pope himself.

Pax Christi
Augustine, at what point does a council become ecumenical?
 
And if its canons are not known, how can said canons be binding?
Hi Duane. Admittedly I haven’t read many of your posts, or at least not recently; so I apologize if I take something out of the larger context. But I read this question and thought, Yeah that’s a good point.

Too often, I think, we Catholics speak as if the binding-ness of dogmatic definitions works invisibly – and, even when we don’t, Protestants might still assume that. For example, it probably sounds to Protestants as if, when a new dogma is defined, Catholics who don’t believe it are instantaneously placed in a state of sin.

As a disclaimer, I’d better add that I wouldn’t try to follow the intricacies of how a dogmatic definition is communicated (which in the olden days could have taken quite some time); I only point out that it does, in fact, work (visibly) through the communication of it.
 
If councils have erred and are not binding on the consciences of the faithful, how is the bible binding when the books of the bible may not belong in the bible, as it were fallible Church councils that said those books do belong?
HI Duane,

Not sure to use expression of “straw man” here. Never used that expression before but have heard others use it a lot.

Did the carriers of OT truth, the one, true Judaism, have to have a council, or a supreme leader, or any real institutional mechanism to determine canon? Did the Corinthians have to wait for a council, or Rome’s bishop approval before receiving Paul’s letters as God-breathed and authoritative ? Did we not have several councils to finally canonize scripture, and that almost a thousand years apart (Trent as final declaration) ?

I really think we have the same if not more info on determining authenticity and date to determine canonicity, as did each council, and each individual church before that.

I think that most genuine churches have universal understanding of acceptance of most books, and probably still would , without any institutional determination, and that infallible. At least it is not a “problem”, as the article suggests.
Asking me, or anyone else to be bound by a book that was put together by a Church you claim to be fallible is absurd.
Again, were the Corinthians, or the Galatians, or Ephesians infallible when receiving the written word from Paul ? I prefer not to institutionalize the working of the Holy Spirit , who not only inspires the writing, but the reception, the preservation, even the translating, and lastly the understanding of said Writ. I am not denying that Writ and its book is a “church” thing, even the use of offices, and councils and copiers, translators etc. . Just that for example, the gospel of John is the gospel of John on its own merit, whether a church accepts it or not, whether a council declares it infallibly canon or not.
He is not asking Orthodox or Protestants to have the same criteria, but to just state what the criteria is that their respective denominations officially use for determining what is an ecumenical council. It shouldn’t be hard.
Again, we all have same info and use almost the same criteria (changes slightly on OT criteria). I really just boils down to one church saying her findings and determinations are infallible , and the other churches not needing such signature.

Blessings
 
For example, it probably sounds to Protestants as if, when a new dogma is defined, Catholics who don’t believe it are instantaneously placed in a state of sin.
I ask this with all sincerity because I’ve yet to hear a CICWR give a clear explanation for why/not – They aren’t?
 
Benhur #88
Just that for example, the gospel of John is the gospel of John on its own merit, whether a church accepts it or not, whether a council declares it infallibly canon or not.
No one would know, or be able to discern, which writings are Gospel or the Word of God without Christ’s Catholic Church defining that reality.

Catholic Apologetics Online
577. You speak of the authority of the Church and the weight of tradition. But I have been taught that Scripture is the only rule of faith.
You have been taught wrongly. Scripture itself denies that it is the only rule of faith. The last verse of St. John’s Gospel tells us that not all concerning Our Lord’s work is contained in Scripture. St. Paul tells us over and over again that much of Christian teaching is to be found in tradition. One who clings to the reading of the Bible only might be able to cite hundreds of texts yet not know Christian doctrine by any means. In fact, the adoption of the Bible only has led to as many opinions as there are men amongst non-Catholics. Finally, Scripture tells us most clearly that the Catholic Church is the rule of faith, that Church which Christ sent to teach all nations and which He commanded men to hear and obey. He who believes in Scripture as his only guide ends by believing in his own mistaken interpretations of the Bible, and that means that he ends by believing in himself
. [My bold].
radioreplies.info/site-search.php?s=40&q=Books%20in%20Bible
Again, we all have same info and use almost the same criteria (changes slightly on OT criteria). I really just boils down to one church saying her findings and determinations are infallible , and the other churches not needing such signature.
591. What special qualifications has the Catholic Church in the interpretation of Scripture?
Very many. 1. The New Testament was written by members of the Catholic Church. She existed before a line of the New Testament was written. Protestantism came on the scene centuries afterwards. The Gospels are really the family papers of the Catholic Church, and she alone, possessing the family traditions, can interpret what those family papers really mean. 2. The Catholic Church carefully and jealously preserved the Bible through the ages, so that Protestants would have no Gospel were it not for her. 3. She has been much more faithful to Scripture than any of the Protestant Churches. Whilst many Protestant leaders are prepared to sacrifice the Bible in order to appear scientific and modern, the Catholic Church consistently demands that every jot and tittle of God’s Word must be accepted in the original sense intended by God. 4. The Protestant Churches owe their separate existences to the fact that each denies that the others really know what Scripture means. 5. The Catholic Church was established by Christ as the rule of faith, and He declared that a man is to be regarded as a heathen if he will not hear the Church. The Catholic Church is the only qualified interpreter of Scripture.
radioreplies.info/site-search.php?s=40&q=Books%20in%20Bible
**
563. What books are omitted from the Protestant Version?**
Tobias, Judith, Wisdom, Ecclesiasticus, Baruch, the two Books of Machabees, and the various sections of other Books.
radioreplies.info/site-search.php?s=20&q=Books%20in%20Bible
 
I’ll just leave this here. Maybe just maybe someone will read it: energeticprocession.wordpress.com/2009/12/02/against-khomiakov/
Read it. I have never said Khomiakov’s reasoning is the criteria the Orthodox use to determine what makes a council Ecumenical, though Orthodox on this site have quoted him as if it is the official position. I have asked what makes a council Ecumenical.

Why is the council of Constantinople in 381 considered an Ecumenical council?
 
Read it. I have never said Khomiakov’s reasoning is the criteria the Orthodox use to determine what makes a council Ecumenical, though Orthodox on this site have quoted him as if it is the official position. I have asked what makes a council Ecumenical.

Why is the council of Constantinople in 381 considered an Ecumenical council?
I’ll answer this in a singular post by quoting previous posts of mine. I don’t care to rehash some ish about how our system is somehow more circular than Catholics’ or Protestants’, so I won’t be addressing it. I’ll leave it to everyone else’ intellectual rigor or lack thereof, and I’ll leave it to others to glean from my posts what I may or may not think on such a subject.

Post 1 of 2.
So yeah there is no single answer to your question regarding Ecumenical councils. In fact, there are various schools of thought within the Orthodox Church on this one. I’d be happy to explain my position, which isn’t too different from the answer you have already received.

Historically, there are two things that make a council ecumenical in the Orthodox view: 1) that a significantly large number of bishops (and laymen too) attend the council from a relatively “international” geographic area. Of course, over the centuries the “world” of the Christian Church has expanded to include the entire globe.
  1. That the council teach correct doctrine.
#2 is probably the biggest difference between Catholics and Orthodox. Catholics can usually look at a council, see if a pope participated, and see if he wrote or said anything regarding its validity. Once that check is done, the case is closed and then it is ecumenical and infallible. The implication of the Orthodox position is that a council by virtue of its process does not make its teachings infallible. Rather, a doctrine is justified solely by the merits of the argument. Now this usually leads to accusations of sounding very Protestant. I can’t fully deny that accusation, but I will say that we do temper this idea with a high reverence for tradition.

In short, there is no true objective standard for determining if a council is ecumenical in Orthodox understanding. For example, the Orthodox understand Chalcedon to be ecumenical, but the Jacobites say that although it was widely attended, it did not teach correctly. These are unfortunate results, but this sort of fracturing seems to plague any church regardless of its organization and standards.

Another good example is the Council of Constantinople of 879. Some Orthodox regard it as ecumenical, as in you must believe its proclamations if you are to be a good Orthodox. But most Orthodox don’t see it as such. And their disagreement isn’t based upon any rejection of its teachings, but probably just the fact that they don’t see it as essential to the faith or that perhaps it wasn’t widely attended (although it really was widely attended).

As for your comments about laymen, I disagree. I think theology shouldn’t be solely an academic pursuit. And laymen are just as much a part of the Body of Christ as their bishops are. This should not be interpreted of course of upsetting order. Bishops alone cast votes at councils, but if the congregations refuse it in mass, then there is probably a serious issue with what the bishops taught. This has been a rare historical occurrence though.
 
Post 2 of 2.
A lot of local councils are held in high regard as teaching correct doctrine, but are not regarded as ecumenical due to their limited attendance. A good example of this is the Council of Frankfurt in 794, which condemned Adoptionism. Another example is the Second Council of Orange in 529.

As for your comments about Chalcedon, I think you can extend similar statements about all of the first seven ecumenical councils. This limited Western attendance wasn’t really regarded as an issue until the Second Council of Nicaea in 787. The Eastern bishops believed that the papacy sufficiently represented the West at the council. Well, it didn’t turn out that way because the Frankish Church rejected II Nicaea. They rejected it on the basis that they weren’t represented at the council and that it taught heresy. In fact, a lot of pockets of Western Europe continued to reject II Nicaea’s ecumenical status well into the Late Middle Ages.

Ultimately however, determining whether or not a council is or isn’t ecumenical based upon attendance is not easy either. Like I mentioned above, II Nicaea wasn’t accepted until centuries later in many parts of Europe. “Ecumenical” is mostly a term that is determined by the two factors I mentioned in my previous post, but even then it still remains a nebulous term. In short, there is a third factor, which is the following: the council must define doctrine so central to the faith that in order to be considered Orthodox, one must accept it.

As for Constantinople 1, I am not sure which one you are referring to. If you mean Constantinople in 869, then that also poses an interesting case. The Catholic Church accepts this as ecumenical, while the Orthodox Church does not. It was widely attended by all parties and patriarchs. So why do the Orthodox refuse to call it ecumenical? The council of 869 is much more polarized in the Orthodox world today, but back then, it was eventually superseded by Constantinople 879. Back then, the Eastern bishops felt that the punishment against Photius was either uncalled for or too harsh, so they revised the decision.

Constantinople 879 also poses an interesting case for why it isn’t regarded as ecumenical. It was just as well attended as 869. Even the pope signed off on it. But many Orthodox and all Catholics reject it as ecumenical. Most Orthodox reject it because they don’t feel it to be essential to the faith, although they might agree with its decisions. Catholics’ rejection of it is more of a historical accident more than anything. Francis Dvornik made a detailed study of its reception in the Latin West from the beginning and into the modern era (see his book The Photian Schism). More or less, it was just forgotten and then brought to everyone’s attention in the early modern period with a lot of polemical connotations that were never originally there. Dvornik argued, and I think he has a good point, that Catholics today should regard Constantinople 879 as ecumenical on the basis of their own criteria.

At the end of the day, a council doesn’t need to be international to teach correct doctrine in an Orthodox understanding, but having a international conference can really help to get everyone on the same page to say the least.
 
The New Testament was written by members of the Catholic Church.
Ok. St Paul and St John etc., were Catholics according to the …Catholic church. ?
The Gospels are really the family papers of the Catholic Church
OK the NT is a Catholic book,…according to the Catholic Church. ?
she alone, possessing the family traditions, can interpret what those family papers really mean.
OK our traditions are Catholic,…according to the Catholic church. And true interpretation is Catholic,…according to the Catholic church. ?

Understand.Thank you .Just kindly disagree with such ‘simplicity’.

Blessings
 
benhur #95
Ok. St Paul and St John etc., were Catholics according to the …Catholic church. ?
The Church to which they gave allegiance is the Church established by the Christ whose name “Catholic” was first used by St. Ignatius of Antioch (A.D. 35-107) in his Letter to the Smyrneans, 8, 2: “Where Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.” It is from the Greek katholike meaning “general” or “universal”. Within 90 years it meant also “orthodox” or faithful to the teachings of Christ. (The Catholic Catechism, Fr John A Hardon, S.J., Doubleday, 1975, p 217).

You have been enlightened on this before.
OK the NT is a Catholic book,…according to the Catholic Church. ?
You have been enlightened on this before.
The whole of the Sacred Scriptures (Bible) is available ONLY because the Catholic Church declared what books are the inspired Word of God.
Only the Catholic Church put books of the Old Testament (46) and books of the New Testament (27) together and DEFINED those as the Sacred Scriptures – by Pope Damasus at a Council of Rome in 382, confirmed at the Councils of Hippo, 393, Carthage III 397, Carthage IV in 419 and canonised at the Council of Trent (1545-1563) – clearly showing the authority of Christ’s Church, and culminating in the defined Canon of Sacred Scriptures at the Council of Trent.

Further, one great teaching therein – Purgatory – is omitted in Protestant Bibles because they leave out 7 Books, and in Maccabees II (12:46) we are taught that “it is therefore a holy and wholesome thought to pray for the dead that they may be loosed from their sins.”
OK our traditions are Catholic,…according to the Catholic church. And true interpretation is Catholic,…according to the Catholic church. ?
Christ’s Catholic Church is based on Sacred Tradition, Sacred Scripture and His Magisterium. Any “traditions” and “interpretations” which contradict or omit the teaching which Christ guaranteed in His Catholic Church are false.
Just kindly disagree with such ‘simplicity’
.
It is not what I would call “simplicity”, but it is the reality – The Way, The Truth and the Life – as Christ decreed – when He formed what he decreed as “MY Church”.
 
Understand.Thank you .Just kindly disagree with such ‘simplicity’.
It is the way someone would explain things to a child, because it would just confuse them if you showed them how messy it really was. Unfortunately some Catholics never get beyond children’s explanations.
 
Ok. St Paul and St John etc., were Catholics according to the …Catholic church. ? OK the NT is a Catholic book,…according to the Catholic Church. ? OK our traditions are Catholic,…according to the Catholic church. And true interpretation is Catholic,…according to the Catholic church. ?

Understand.Thank you .Just kindly disagree with such ‘simplicity’.

Blessings
It is the way someone would explain things to a child, because it would just confuse them if you showed them how messy it really was. Unfortunately some Catholics never get beyond children’s explanations.
You say “some Catholics” but I would say that most Christians learn what their church teaches, without learning the deepest reasons why it teaches that. Admittedly I’ve only been to a handful of Protestant churches, but when I did the sermons/homilies that I heard were not apologetics, any more than the sermons/homilies that I typically hear in Catholic churches. (There was one exception: I heard a highly conservative Lutheran pastor “explain” why a certain NT passage showed that Rome was wrong about justification. Frankly, it left me thinking “Oh brother”, especially since he said nothing about any of the readings we had just heard.)
 
It is the way someone would explain things to a child, because it would just confuse them if you showed them how messy it really was. Unfortunately some Catholics never get beyond children’s explanations.
C.S. Lewis, "“the unhistorical, without knowing it, are usually enslaved to a fairly recent past”.
 
You say “some Catholics” but I would say that most Christians learn what their church teaches, without learning the deepest reasons why it teaches that. Admittedly I’ve only been to a handful of Protestant churches, but when I did the sermons/homilies that I heard were not apologetics, any more than the sermons/homilies that I typically hear in Catholic churches. (There was one exception: I heard a highly conservative Lutheran pastor “explain” why a certain NT passage showed that Rome was wrong about justification. Frankly, it left me thinking “Oh brother”, especially since he said nothing about any of the readings we had just heard.)
PJ, maybe the Spirit told him you were in their midst.🙂
 
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