E
EricBrooks
Guest
This isn’t an accusation, but an honest question. I don’t know much about the history of priestly celibacy, but I found a couple of these facts odd.
The present practice, as far as I know, is celibacy in the West and marriage in the east (except for bishops).
1 Timothy speaks of bishops having wives, but Jerome and other Fathers explain that clergy were expected to live in continence after ordination. We know that the West later adopted the practice of celibacy, but it seems that there’s some good reason to suppose that even in the east clergy were expected to be continent if married. The primary sources in favor of this view are available in the wikipedia article on priestly celibacy and many other places, so I won’t reproduce them here. The most notable fact, though, may be that the Council of Carthage commanded that all clergy (bishops, priests, deacons) abstain from conjugal intercourse.
Apparently in the council of Quinisext the decree from the Council of Carthage is reinterpreted not to mean perpetual abstinence, but only set periods of abstinence relative to the celebration of the Liturgy. The Catholic Church never accepted the Council of Quinisext, but it’s my understanding that Eastern Catholics have followed the Orthodox in this practice. If the Catholic Church does not accept Quinisext, why should Eastern Catholics follow the innovation of this council?
I really don’t have a strong opinion about this. I just encountered this argument for the first time. I feel like I may be missing something, and am hoping that someone here knows more.
The present practice, as far as I know, is celibacy in the West and marriage in the east (except for bishops).
1 Timothy speaks of bishops having wives, but Jerome and other Fathers explain that clergy were expected to live in continence after ordination. We know that the West later adopted the practice of celibacy, but it seems that there’s some good reason to suppose that even in the east clergy were expected to be continent if married. The primary sources in favor of this view are available in the wikipedia article on priestly celibacy and many other places, so I won’t reproduce them here. The most notable fact, though, may be that the Council of Carthage commanded that all clergy (bishops, priests, deacons) abstain from conjugal intercourse.
Apparently in the council of Quinisext the decree from the Council of Carthage is reinterpreted not to mean perpetual abstinence, but only set periods of abstinence relative to the celebration of the Liturgy. The Catholic Church never accepted the Council of Quinisext, but it’s my understanding that Eastern Catholics have followed the Orthodox in this practice. If the Catholic Church does not accept Quinisext, why should Eastern Catholics follow the innovation of this council?
I really don’t have a strong opinion about this. I just encountered this argument for the first time. I feel like I may be missing something, and am hoping that someone here knows more.