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Thank you. I knew it was in the Decree on Justification, so it only took a little while to flip to the right page in the book last night. But it may not always be that easy. There are twenty-five sessions after all.Perhaps the following will be more helpful to you: The quote is Canon XXIII of the Sixth Session of the Council of Trent celebrated on the thirteenth day of the month of January, 1547.
Well, let’s take a look at the portion of my previous post you quoted:As to the content of the Canon, I am not sure that it simply reiterates what you’ve been saying all along.
I’m sorry, but I don’t know of any Catholic teaching that states conception without original sin makes one incapable of personal sin. I am at liberty to believe that Mary was capable of sin, and most RC theology about Mary wouldn’t make any sense without assuming that she had free will to commit personal sin.
Do authorities to which you refer state that conception without sin makes one incapable of personal sin? Do they state that Mary had no free will to commit personal sin? Let’s take a look.
CANON XXIII.-lf any one saith, that a man once justified can sin no more, nor lose grace, and that therefore he that falls and sins was never truly justified; or, on the other hand, that he is able, during his whole life, to avoid all sins, even those that are venial,-except by a special privilege from God, as the Church holds in regard of the Blessed Virgin; let him be anathema.Council of Trent, Session 6.
The first part states that a man once justified can sin and can lose grace. The second part after the semicolon states that a man is not able to during his entire life to avoid all sins, except by special privilege from God (grace) as in the case of Mary. We both agree that Mary was given grace by God. We both agree that Mary did not sin. We may disagree that Mary was given a greater quantum of grace or type of grace than any other person, but I never denied that Mary was given special grace in that regard. I specifically stated on more than one occasion that she was given an abundance of grace. In any case, none of this states or even implies that Mary was incapable of sin or that she lacked free will.
Come on thedejongs. It does not “expressly” state that Mary was “exempted” from personal sin. That is an interpretation you’ve inserted without giving any basis in RC teaching. Mystici Corporis doesn’t help you.It states expressly that Mary was, by special privilege, exempted from sin unlike any human being other than Christ himself.
I laughed because I know that Mystici Corporis works against your position.Not exactly sure why you’re laughing, but I am certainly happy to give you the exact quote that supports my statement.
I only included the italicized portion. I fail to see how it advances your position that Mary was incapable of sinning or that she lacked free will. It states she was free from personal sin, but we all already agree with that. Here is the relevant portion from the encyclical:I italicized the portion I believe to be relevant. It comes from the Encyclical of Pope Pius XII “On the Mystical Body of Christ” (Mystici Corporis Christi) The 110th paragraph reads, in full, as follows:
. . .
It was she, the second Eve, who, free from all sin, original or personal, and always more intimately united with her Son, offered Him on Golgotha to the Eternal Father for all the children of Adam, sin-stained by his unhappy fall, and her mother’s rights and her mother’s love were included in the holocaust.
. . .
Venerable Brethren, may the Virgin Mother of God hear the prayers of Our paternal heart - which are yours also - and obtain for all a true love of the Church - she whose sinless soul was filled with the divine spirit of Jesus Christ above all other created souls, who “in the name of the whole human race” gave her consent “for a spiritual marriage between the Son of God and human nature.” (Emphasis added).
If Mary was incapable of doing anything other than the will of God, then there can’t be consent. Yet here Pope Pius says she gave consent. Was it due to the grace given her? Of course. Just like the good actions I perform would not possible without the grace of God. When I was baptized as an infant, I had not done anything to merit the accompanying grace. Are my free actions any less meritorious simply because God has given me a gift that I choose to cooperate with? Is it any different for someone who receives a greater gift of grace and who also chooses to cooperate? Would a “good” act apart from any grace make it more meritorious? I hope you can now see why your analysis of Mary’s free will and ability to sin doesn’t make sense to us.