Eastern Rite Theology vs Dogma

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Is everyone forgetting the law of non-contradiction? A cannot be A and not A at the same time and the same relationship.

The Immaculate Conception cannot be both true and false. The doctrine of the Infallibility of the Pope, cannot be both true and false. ETC.
 
We need to be continually working towards an agreement. And when the Church says “you must believe this under pain of anathema” you have two options. Accept it as truth or believe the Church is heretical.
No, we only need to work towards agreement on some things. And actually, there are more than two choices on the latter depending upon the circumstances. I can’t recall seeing a conciliar statement that read “you must believe this under pain of anathema.” Even if one did, there are many of our dogmas that the ECs have never seen. There are others that may or may not ever apply to them. True, there are certain things that none of us can believe because they are four-square against Catholicity. Totally disagree with you on all the rest though.

Just saw your other post. Good for you that you understand the law of non-contradiction. I haven’t proposed a logical contradiction. If you think I have, then you will have to explain how.
 
We need to be continually working towards an agreement. And when the Church says “you must believe this under pain of anathema” you have two options. Accept it as truth or believe the Church is heretical.
And that which the church says “You must believe under pain of Anathema” has a specific name for the class of required beliefs: Dogma.

Doctrine includes that which must be obeyed (given assent of Will and Intellect) and taught, but need not be personally believed, as well as those things that are required of members of specific churches in union but not of the whole of the church.

The CCC expounds Dogma AND Roman Doctrine. Some Sui Iuris churches have differences in doctrine; none of these are major, but a few do clash with the CCC.

In most cases, the Doctrines which differ are tied tightly to the praxis of the Church Sui Iuris which holds different doctrine.

It is Roman Doctrine that the ideal priest is a celibate male, with a graduate degree from a seminary, fully obedient to both Rome and His Bishop, and speaks at least 3 languages: Church Latin, Koine Greek, and his local vernacular. It is Universal Doctrine (but not yet Dogma) that Celibate priests have a beneficial role in the Church. It is also universal doctrine that women are invalid matter for priestly ordination. It is universal doctrine that valid marriage can not be contracted/sacramentalized/entered after ordination to the Subdeaconate; that there is a need for the subdeaconate is not universal doctrine.

In all these cases, the assent of will and intellect is required. One may not teach otherwise, nor act otherwise, but by the same token, one is not required to believe any of these to be in union with the pope. Now, there are many priests who do not meet the ideal, and are still great priests. There are at least a dozen Churches in union that still have subdeacons. There is no dogmatic definition that Subdeacons may not marry/remarry, but no church in union allows them to, if they have them.

For example: I know a deacon who feels quite strongly that deacons who are widowed should be allowed to remarry. He doesn’t teach this, and will not seek remarriage himself should his wife pass away, but he’s not a heretic for having the belief, so long as he neither teaches nor openly advocates for it.

On the other hand, a deacon who fails to believe in the real presence is a manifest heretic, even if he does not teach it; he lacks the needed dogmatic belief to be Catholic, let alone a cleric of the Church. (I’ve heard rumors of one… but have not known any who are that heretical.)

The Catholic church is unified in its dogma.
 
Is everyone forgetting the law of non-contradiction? A cannot be A and not A at the same time and the same relationship.

The Immaculate Conception cannot be both true and false. The doctrine of the Infallibility of the Pope, cannot be both true and false. ETC.
Neither of those are doctrines-simple, but dogmas, and thus universally required.
 
East and West,

The various traditions in the Catholic Communion of Churches are complementary, not contradictory.

The IC is expressed differently but not in a contradictory manner. Likewise with PI. Whatever is the reality behind (or the essential in) the IC and PI is what is universally held in the Catholic Communion of Churches. The dogmatic formulas used to express these realities are not considered heretical by any Catholic Church in the Communion, though they may be “easternized” among the Easterners, and even distinctivised among the various Easterners. In other words, the Dogmas are expressed in various Eastern theological words and symbols, but always in complementary with and never in contradiction to the Latin theological expression.

The CCC says:

170 We do not believe in formulas, but in those realities they express, which faith allows us to touch. “The believer’s act [of faith] does not terminate in the propositions, but in the realities [which they express].” All the same, we do approach these realities with the help of formulations of the faith which permit us to express the faith and to hand it on, to celebrate it in community, to assimilate and live on it more and more.​

For example, with regards the IC, here is how one Byzantine Catholic explains this Dogma:
Immucalute Conception

God bless,

Rony
 
East and West,

The various traditions in the Catholic Communion of Churches are complementary, not contradictory.

The IC is expressed differently but not in a contradictory manner. Likewise with PI. Whatever is the reality behind (or the essential in) the IC and PI is what is universally held in the Catholic Communion of Churches. The dogmatic formulas used to express these realities are not considered heretical by any Catholic Church in the Communion, though they may be “easternized” among the Easterners, and even distinctivised among the various Easterners. In other words, the Dogmas are expressed in various Eastern theological words and symbols, but always in complementary with and never in contradiction to the Latin theological expression.

The CCC says:

170 We do not believe in formulas, but in those realities they express, which faith allows us to touch. “The believer’s act [of faith] does not terminate in the propositions, but in the realities [which they express].” All the same, we do approach these realities with the help of formulations of the faith which permit us to express the faith and to hand it on, to celebrate it in community, to assimilate and live on it more and more.​

For example, with regards the IC, here is how one Byzantine Catholic explains this Dogma:
Immucalute Conception

God bless,

Rony
Accepting the IC and denying it is a contradiction. Plain and simple
 
Accepting the IC and denying it is a contradiction. Plain and simple
East and West,

I don’t deny the IC, I simply see it through an Eastern theological perspective. In the Chaldean Church, we call Mary in classical Aramaic as Malyath Taibootha or in modern Aramaic as Mleetha Ni’ma, which means Full of or Filled with Grace. We see her as full of grace from her conception onward.

God bless,

Rony
 
Aramis;2997716:
Neither of those are doctrines-simple, but dogmas, and thus universally required.
Really? Because the Church declares an anathema on anyone who rejects Papal infallibility.
Doctrines-simple is a technical way of saying “Doctrines which are not also dogmas.”

And anyone who rejects ANY dogma is anathematized.
 
Joab,

The differences with the Easterners/Orientals are not just with cultures and customs. There are also theological differences, though these differences are complementary with Latin theology, as well as, complementary amongst each others’ theologies.
Yes I understand that.
The Irish, Polish, French, and Hispanics are all members of the Latin Church and therefore share basic Latin theological expressions. Ukrainians, Chaldeans, and Ethiopians have theological expressions not only distinct from but complementary with Latin theology, but are also distinct amongst each other, since each of them arose out of a distinct tradition (Ukrainians use the Constantinopolitan tradition, Ethiopians use the Alexandrian tradition, Chaldeans use the Chaldean tradition).
True.
Check here for the definition of a rite
Yes, I have looked it up previously several times. Thanks though.
Now, I agree that there is only one Deposit of Faith received from the Apostles, namely Holy Tradition and Holy Scripture, but this deposit was planted among different peoples such that symbols, terms, formulas, and expressions were used to convey and live out this Deposit of Faith. Out of this planting of the Deposit of Faith arose these theological, liturgical, spiritual, and disciplinary expressions that we see today in the Catholic Church. The Deposit of Faith remains basically the same through out the Catholic Communion, yet the expressions of it are distinct amongst the various Catholic traditions.
Also understood and what you say clarifies what I was getting at in simple terms. Thanks. The only problem I have is when misconceptions cause discord which I see no need of.
God bless,
Thank you.

Peace.
 
Really? Because the Church declares an anathema on anyone who rejects Papal infallibility.
I think if you concentrate your study on the differences between Dogma and Doctrine you should understand Eastern Catholic Theology is not contrary to Church Dogma though some of it may express doctrines in a different way.

Sometimes through ignorance it may seem juxtaposed to some doctrines though in essence and reality it is not. It takes the honest effort to understand it first though.

This is a major difference I see between the EO and the EO Catholics.

In fact, Eastern theology and custom is what the Holy See encourages the East to preserve as it is much more than just enriching to the whole of the Catholic Faith which it is. It is the praxis of our Eastern brothers and sisters that we should respect as much as our own.

Uniformity isn’t necessary for Catholic unity. In fact it’s this push for uniformity that the Holy See condemns and what is frequently referred to here as “Latinizations” and frankly one terminology that I would like to see no need for.

Peace.
 
In fact, Eastern theology and custom is what the Holy See encourages the East to preserve as it is much more than just enriching to the whole of the Catholic Faith which it is. It is the praxis of our Eastern brothers and sisters that we should respect as much as our own.

Uniformity isn’t necessary for Catholic unity. In fact it’s this push for uniformity that the Holy See condemns and what is frequently referred to here as “Latinizations” and frankly one terminology that I would like to see no need for.

Peace.
Joab,

Very well said. There is no contradiction between Eastern Catholic theology and Catholic dogma. We may emphasize distinct points - even aspects of doctrine and praxis that are often missed by our Latin brothers and sisters - but in essence the views are complimentary, not contradictory.

Problems arise only when Eastern Catholics accept a polemical (and at times anti-Catholic) stream within Eastern Orthodoxy as being normative for Eastern belief. Very often it reflects a very narrow reading of Church history or the Fathers of the Church - or even a modern presentation by contemporary Orthodox theologians. Fundamentally, our magisterial theology is liturgical, and IMHO, infallible.

In ICXC,

Gordo
 
Accepting the IC and denying it is a contradiction. Plain and simple
It seems that the inscrutable east is really eluding you! 😃

The best way to understand this concept is by going back to the predominant Latin attitude about the nature of fallen man as opposed to the predominant attitude of the east about the nature of fallen man.

There have been many, many discussions about the two ideas of Original Sin (or First Sin) but I must ask you in charity to please not be readily dismissive of this.

Over time there was a considerable gulf between the understandings, and I am not stating that one or another was better!

If you can imagine all of us claiming an Immaculate Conception I am sure you would feel a bit of revulsion at the thought. So just gather that in…and feel it for a moment. That is the Latin attitude leaning toward the general level of depravity of all of us…certainly an unworthy bunch! :o

In that sense, no one can conceive of the Blessed Virgin being just like us…so unworthy and prone to almost any level of sin at any time. So the idea of Mary’s conception being special grew in the minds of many.

In the east, the mother of God Mary is primarily a heroic figure, something like a Horatio Alger success story. She did not sin because of her gumption, her true grit. The right stuff.

In other words, her sinlessness is not a foregone conclusion. In fact she is certainly not the only one so blessed (John the Baptist is another). It is a function of her will in cooperation with the Grace of God showering down upon us like the rain.

If one thinks in these terms, the concept of immaculate conception is unnecessary and superfluous. She is endowed with the same conception of all of us…in a sinless state any woman would have been just like her, because they were similarly born.

Michael
 
In other words, her sinlessness is not a foregone conclusion. In fact she is certainly not the only one so blessed (John the Baptist is another). It is a function of her will in cooperation with the Grace of God showering down upon us like the rain.

If one thinks in these terms, the concept of immaculate conception is unnecessary and superfluous. She is endowed with the same conception of all of us…in a sinless state any woman would have been just like her, because they were similarly born.

Michael
Except that, going with your thoughts about John the Baptist, Mary was concieved without Original Sin, whereas, St. John was born w/o OS.

The truth is, we can only speculate to exactly what was meant by:
41 And it came to pass, that when Elizabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the infant leaped in her womb. And Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost: 42 And she cried out with a loud voice, and said: Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb. 43 And whence is this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? 44 For behold as soon as the voice of thy salutation sounded in my ears, the infant in my womb leaped for joy. 45 And blessed art thou that hast believed, because those things shall be accomplished that were spoken to thee by the Lord.
IMO, I’m sure in others, this could translate to St. John being born w/o OS, but its not definitive. Whereas, the IC, is de fide.
 
It seems that the inscrutable east is really eluding you! 😃

The best way to understand this concept is by going back to the predominant Latin attitude about the nature of fallen man as opposed to the predominant attitude of the east about the nature of fallen man.

There have been many, many discussions about the two ideas of Original Sin (or First Sin) but I must ask you in charity to please not be readily dismissive of this.

Over time there was a considerable gulf between the understandings, and I am not stating that one or another was better!

If you can imagine all of us claiming an Immaculate Conception I am sure you would feel a bit of revulsion at the thought. So just gather that in…and feel it for a moment. That is the Latin attitude leaning toward the general level of depravity of all of us…certainly an unworthy bunch! :o

In that sense, no one can conceive of the Blessed Virgin being just like us…so unworthy and prone to almost any level of sin at any time. So the idea of Mary’s conception being special grew in the minds of many.

In the east, the mother of God Mary is primarily a heroic figure, something like a Horatio Alger success story. She did not sin because of her gumption, her true grit. The right stuff.

In other words, her sinlessness is not a foregone conclusion. In fact she is certainly not the only one so blessed (John the Baptist is another). It is a function of her will in cooperation with the Grace of God showering down upon us like the rain.

If one thinks in these terms, the concept of immaculate conception is unnecessary and superfluous. She is endowed with the same conception of all of us…in a sinless state any woman would have been just like her, because they were similarly born.

Michael
The IC does not force Mary to be sinless. Adam and Eve were created Immaculate as well but they still fell into sin. Mary still could have sinned had she chosen to.
 
The IC does not force Mary to be sinless. Adam and Eve were created Immaculate as well but they still fell into sin. Mary still could have sinned had she chosen to.
Yes, of course. God made us with free will.

The point is, from the eastern viewpoint the IC does nothing at all that is not already a fact for all.
*
Michael*
 
One of the things I find contradictory about the IC is that it basically means that Mary entered the new paradise before Christ. Before Christ was ever concieved Mary had re-entered paradise.
 
One of the things I find contradictory about the IC is that it basically means that Mary entered the new paradise before Christ. Before Christ was ever concieved Mary had re-entered paradise.
The dogma of the Immaculate Conception assumes that God is outside of time. That is certainly how John Duns Scotus defended it.
 
Not important.

Ott carries no weight in the East, unless for individuals like yourself that have completely absorbed the latin understanding. He was a German theologian who wrote about Latin theology.

A perfect example being your contesting the possibility of St John NOT being born sinless, or remaining sinless. Byzantine Greek tradition (which I understand is not yours, of course, being Chaldean) does not question that, or minutely analyze it. It is why St John the Forerunner and Saint Mary Theotokos are sometimes portrayed iconographically as intercessing together for mankind before Christ the just judge.

The concept of an immaculate conception is definitely NOT the same as an blessed birth.

It can be said (although the point is not normally pressed or elaborated) that all people…St John, St Mary, you and I are immaculately conceived.

Alternatively, it can be said that none of us are. It really depends on what one thinks of the macula that a zygote is supposed to be in possession of, I guess…

Simply insisting that the IC is *de Fide *and must be believed is meaningless in this context.

It can be like insisting that someone believe that water boils at 212 degrees. If you live in Denver that does not make sense except as a theory, but in fact in Denver it is absolutely untrue and cannot be proven.

Or demanding someone assent to E = mc2 to save their own soul. One can agree that is must be true, to be relieved of constant badgering. But can one really believe something that they cannot understand? Many people around the world would not get their heads around it. Many would not care.
*
Michael
*http://www.byzantines.net/epiphany/waterimages/stjohnforerunner.jpg
 
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