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However, the Theotokos is not.The dogma of the Immaculate Conception assumes that God is outside of time. That is certainly how John Duns Scotus defended it.
However, the Theotokos is not.The dogma of the Immaculate Conception assumes that God is outside of time. That is certainly how John Duns Scotus defended it.
Sorry friend, I am familiar with the Western and Eastern understanding of the IC.Not important.
Ott carries no weight in the East, unless for individuals like yourself that have completely absorbed the latin understanding. He was a German theologian who wrote about Latin theology.
Greek tradition is not DOGMA. A dogma is something that all Catholics are bound to believe in. I know you are orthodox and there are no new dogmas in your faith since probably the latest council you accept, but as a Catholic, we still have councils and in one of these, this dogma was revealed.A perfect example being your contesting the possibility of St John NOT being born sinless, or remaining sinless. Byzantine Greek tradition (which I understand is not yours, of course, being Chaldean) does not question that, or minutely analyze it. It is why St John the Forerunner and Saint Mary Theotokos are sometimes portrayed iconographically as intercessing together for mankind before Christ the just judge.
Neither the Theotokos nor the incarnation are outside of time.The dogma of the Immaculate Conception assumes that God is outside of time. That is certainly how John Duns Scotus defended it.
You are assuming that the Latin theological constructs are domanant over the Greek.Sorry friend, I am familiar with the Western and Eastern understanding of the IC.
a dogma is a dogma for the east and the west. This whole eastern/western thing doesn’t exist in Heaven anyhow. Truth is truth, it doesn’t matter whether it was revealed in the East or the West or which terms are used to describe it.
Greek tradition is not DOGMA.
I am not the one asserting anything superiority of wester/eastern understanding. I am simply being Catholic and using both lungs of the Church.You are assuming that the Latin theological constructs are domanant over the Greek.
Not even your own church can, or will, say this. It cannot, or the entire concept of two (or more) theologies in one church will be shown to be a farce.
The fact is under the modern Catholic (as in Papal) understanding there would be an underlying Truth difficult (if not impossible) to express in human terms, and the latin expression is not more accurate than the Greek. You cannot insist that the Greeks affirm a dogmatic interpretation that makes no sense to them.
Your interpretation is that the Latin is most correct, and the Greek is flawed or incorrect, you cannot really say that. Imposing Latin formulated dogma upon the Greek Catholic theological system is not only wrong, it is sometimes dangerous.
Furthermore, assuming that the Latin general councils of the west are ecumenical and therefore protected from error is not a foregone conclusion, even among Eastern Catholics! As noted elsewhere on this thread and in this forum even Archbishops and Patriarchs of the Eastern Catholic churches dispute that. Your Pope must deal with this reality and so do you.
You might quote Ott as if he were an infallible interpreter of doctrine for Catholics (and hurl de Fides around as you see appropriate) but he is not. His book is not inspired by the Holy Spirit and the English translation of his work has already been demonstrated to be flawed. You are dancing on quicksand when you discuss theology with the East using Ott and other latin sources like the Old Catholic Encyclopedia and TAN books!
But, since that seems to be all you are willing to work with, I can understand why you aren’t getting it.
*Michael*
You don’t appear to be…I am not the one asserting anything superiority of wester/eastern understanding. I am simply being Catholic and using both lungs of the Church.
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EXACTLY-- my point and the point of many others on this thread. The RCC not only assumes the dominance of Latin theological constructs in certain cases, it actually imposes them. It is insufficient for certain dogmatic statements to take refuge in the “we believe the same end but have different theological expressions of it” in cases in which the RCC has made a contrary dogmatic statement as to the proper expression, in addition to the end. I’m glad to see an Eastern Catholic finally recognizing that the concept of two or more theologies in one church is, indeed, a farce (your words; not mine).You are assuming that the Latin theological constructs are domanant over the Greek.
Not even your own church can, or will, say this. It cannot, or the entire concept of two (or more) theologies in one church will be shown to be a farce.
Methinks that this is a bit uncalled for. Ott is, in fact, a decent reference source. However, people on this thread apparently believe that some of us refuse to work with original texts and are comfortable simply quoting a secondary source, just because a comment we make may be mirrored in Ott. There’s no dancing on quicksand at all when one refers to magisterial authorities applicable to the entire RCC (such as the documents of ecumenical councils, the CCC, and papal encylicals) when those happen also to be “latin sources.” We’re working with original documents but still aren’t getting it-- other than, perhaps, clarifying the notion that having one’s cake and eating it, too, is much rarer than EC’s appear to believe.You might quote Ott as if he were an infallible interpreter of doctrine for Catholics (and hurl de Fides around as you see appropriate) but he is not. You are dancing on quicksand when you discuss theology with the East using Ott and other latin sources like the Old Catholic Encyclopedia and TAN books!
But, since that seems to be all you are willing to work with, I can understand why you aren’t getting it.
But this is exactly what has happened between the Catholic Church and the Oriental Orthodox Church in talks over the “monophysite” issue that has divided us.It is insufficient for certain dogmatic statements to take refuge in the “we believe the same end but have different theological expressions of it” in cases in which the RCC has made a contrary dogmatic statement as to the proper expression,
But they are latin expressions of theologies. You might be confusing expressions of faith, which is what theology explains, with faith itself. The Ukrainian’s did not have to accept the word Purgatory in the Union of Brest because the theological underpinnings of purgatory are explained in latin terms. However, the Ukrainians did have to confess the totality of the Catholic faith.You assume that doctrines are nothing more than Latin theologies
You seem upset…Blah blah blah… Latin theological Constructions… blah blah blah… Latinizations… blah blah blah…
Not at all. Its just silly that some Catholics think its ok to deny articles of the faith.You seem upset…
I think that you are the one in denial.Not at all. Its just silly that some Catholics think its ok to deny articles of the faith.
In fact, they required we (Chaldeans) recite the Creed without it as a part of our reformed Liturgy:The reason that Rome doesn’t force the Eastern Catholic Churches to recite the filioque in their Creed is the same reason why the west doesn’t need to drop the filioque.
**Q – Why was the Creed changed to say that the Holy Spirit proceeds “from the Father,” rather than “from the Father and the Son?” **
kaldu.org/14_Reformed_ChaldeanMass/QA_NewMass.htmlA – This is another instance of the Holy See asking us to “return to our roots.” The original form of the Nicene Creed says that the Holy Spirit proceeds “from the Father.” The phrase “and the Son” was added, in the West, in the following centuries. Though it is quite true to say that the Spirit proceeds from both the “Father and the Son,” the Eastern Church, encouraged by the Holy See, has asked us to return to the original form of the Creed.
I am talking about Catholicism here, as defined by ALL the councils. It has nothing to do with being Eastern or Western.I think that you are the one in denial.
Try learning about the Eastern Faith, and listening…instead of dictating to it.
Peace,
Michael
As I said before, there is no such thing as Western Truth, and Eastern Truth in Heaven. Truth is Truth in all eras and all rites.I am talking about Catholicism here, as defined by ALL the councils. *It has nothing to do with being Eastern or Western. *
I agree with you.As I said before, there is no such thing as Western Truth, and Eastern Truth in Heaven. Truth is Truth in all eras and all rites.
Very true, and that truth is expressed in different ways by the east and west (and orientals too), but it is still one faith.As I said before, there is no such thing as Western Truth, and Eastern Truth in Heaven. Truth is Truth in all eras and all rites.
The filioque was essentially made dogma before the Great schism. The pope inserted it into the creed for the liturgy in Rome. There is nothing more authoritative than the liturgy. If it has entered the liturgy it is dogma to those who have entered it in. The east however did not add it. This is the beginning to the schism.Blah blah blah… Latin theological Constructions… blah blah blah… Latinizations… blah blah blah… Latin bad, East Good… You assume that doctrines are nothing more than Latin theologies because you are divorcing yourselves from history. The fact of the matter is that many of these ideas such as the filioque and Purgatory, were made dogma when, for the most part, there were no other Churches in the Catholic Church but the latin Church. At that time, to be Catholic was to be Latin. During that time, the Catholic Church did not cease to be the Catholic Church, the body of Christ. It still tauhgt with authority through her councils…And it really has nothing to do with everyone being latin, but with the fact that almost the entire east was in schism and unable to be part of Church councils.