T
TLM08
Guest
Yes, in some parts of the Old Testament that usage is found, as Karl Keating’s “Catholicism and Fundamentalism” points out . But catholic apologists who make this claim are wrong about that! They fail to see that Christ uses this “flesh eating” metaphor here to illustrate “doing the will of God”.No. In the first century and to this day in the Middle East, that phrase only a metaphor for inflicting grievous injury.
***"…For my flesh is meat *indeed, and my blood is drink indeed." John 6:55
“… I have meat to eat, which you know not. The disciples therefore said one to another: Hath any man brought him to eat? Jesus saith to them: My meat is to do the will of him that sent me, that I may perfect his work.” John 4:32-34**
I have meat to eat…My flesh is meat…My meat is to do the will of God? Did Jesus really just say that? Look, I did not figure this out on my own. Bible scholars have known this for centuries… But this obvious error surrounding the communion meal will remain forever since the Church cannot reverse herself on this and Catholics must believe everything the Catholic Church has previously declared as dogma. The passage in John 6 revolves not around eating the body of Jesus… but doing the will of God!