M
mardukm
Guest
This question is particularly for our Chaldean brethren from the ACOE.
According to the Eastern Orthodox Churches, the immediate jurisidiction of their Patriarchs is only in that Patriarch’s local episcopal (not patriarchal) See.
According to the Catholic and Oriental Orthodox Churches, the immediate jurisdiction of our Patriarchs is the entire Patriarchate (though in practice, if not in theory, the Eastern Catholic Churches might(?) be more similar to the Eastern Orthodox Churches - I hope my Eastern Catholic brethren can clarify this for me).
In short:
EOC position:
Patriarch only has immediate jurisdiction in his local episcopal see. He can practice plenary jurisdiction for the Patriarchate in
Synod and ONLY in synod;
Catholic and Oriental Orthodox position:
Patriarch has plenary jurisdiction in his patriarchal See. He practices this plenary jurisdiction in Synod or, in extenuating circumstances, on his own with later Synodal ratification.
What is the position of the ACOE on the matter? Does/did your Patriarch have plenary jurisdiction for the entire Church, or was it limited to his local See. In other words, was/is your ecclesiology closer to the EOC or the CC/OOC?
To all readers: please understand I am asking about the PATRIARCHAL office. I am not talking about the papal office.
Blessings,
Marduk
According to the Eastern Orthodox Churches, the immediate jurisidiction of their Patriarchs is only in that Patriarch’s local episcopal (not patriarchal) See.
According to the Catholic and Oriental Orthodox Churches, the immediate jurisdiction of our Patriarchs is the entire Patriarchate (though in practice, if not in theory, the Eastern Catholic Churches might(?) be more similar to the Eastern Orthodox Churches - I hope my Eastern Catholic brethren can clarify this for me).
In short:
EOC position:
Patriarch only has immediate jurisdiction in his local episcopal see. He can practice plenary jurisdiction for the Patriarchate in
Synod and ONLY in synod;
Catholic and Oriental Orthodox position:
Patriarch has plenary jurisdiction in his patriarchal See. He practices this plenary jurisdiction in Synod or, in extenuating circumstances, on his own with later Synodal ratification.
What is the position of the ACOE on the matter? Does/did your Patriarch have plenary jurisdiction for the entire Church, or was it limited to his local See. In other words, was/is your ecclesiology closer to the EOC or the CC/OOC?
To all readers: please understand I am asking about the PATRIARCHAL office. I am not talking about the papal office.
Blessings,
Marduk