B
Boston
Guest
Hi All,
I have a doozy here!
My reading tells me that indirect abortion (as in excision of an oviduct, vs direct abortive methods like injected chemicals) is permitted. I understand the principles that differentiate indirect from direct abortions and I’m not looking for an explanation or debate on the difference. My question is this:
In the case of a mother with only one functioning ovary, if removing part of the oviduct could result in sterility, doesn’t that count as surgical contraception, also a mortal sin (as is abortion)?
I have a doozy here!
My reading tells me that indirect abortion (as in excision of an oviduct, vs direct abortive methods like injected chemicals) is permitted. I understand the principles that differentiate indirect from direct abortions and I’m not looking for an explanation or debate on the difference. My question is this:
In the case of a mother with only one functioning ovary, if removing part of the oviduct could result in sterility, doesn’t that count as surgical contraception, also a mortal sin (as is abortion)?