The fallopian tube in this instance is not necessarily “diseased”. It’s just that the fetus became implanted in the wrong place.
I understand the moral principle involved and that morality cannot be relative. But in real life, this is sort of a “Sophie’s Choice” type of question where one is faced with an impossible moral choice.
Take for instance a woman who may already have a damaged or missing fallopian tube, and now has an ectopic pregnancy in the remaining tube. Surgery will, for all intents and purposes, render her sterile. Whether she has surgery or takes the abortifacient, the result will be the same: a dead baby. But in the latter case, at least there is a chance for a new baby.
It’s a bit like this: the moral “truth” is like a mathematical formula where 2+2 = 4. That’s an unchangeable, inviolable, rule. But let’s say you’re designing an industrial process, where you are adding two measures of one ingredient, and 2 measures of another, to create a result that will yield 4 measures of a product.
But the yield of the chemical reaction is only 80% due to inefficiencies in the process, thermal losses, leakage, etc.
The mathematical formula, 2+2=4 remains the foundational argument. But imperfections in the process mean that 2+2 will only equal 3.2, instead of 4.
And isn’t that a bit how humanity works? God teaches us a perfect moral law. But in our fallen world, we are presented with sometimes horrendous choices that we need to make and whichever choice we elect, the result will be imperfect: 2+2 = 3.2, that is to say, neither of our choices will be perfectly moral.
So, how much should we condemn someone who is faced with this form of Sophie’s Choice, and who elects the drug? Does not one have to look at the reasons for choosing the drug? They could be: preventing sterility; risk of surgery, or simply fear of surgery. Especially in the case of the woman with only one good fallopian tube facing sterility, the decision may be so heavily coloured by emotion, that the rational, moral choice is impossible to arrive at. It would seem to me then, that being so heavily clouded by emotion, the choice, while constituting an issue of grave matter, would be not based on full consent of the will and the sin would thus be venial rather than mortal.
We can kill another human in self-defense. Even if the attacker is “innocent” (say a mentally handicapped person attempting to grievously assault someone). Why is it any different in this case? Am I missing something here?