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Deacon_Ed
Guest
The basic problem is that Jerome didn’t translate just what was found in the manuscripts. He included the emendations found in the margins in a couple of cases. There is material in the Vulgate that is, in fact, not found in any Greek manuscript (the Johannine comma being the most famous).Deacon Ed, showed the D-R was derived like this. Greek->Latin->English. Yes, but if you are not sure of the Greek (your starting point) you’d do well to use something written about the year 395 to 410. At least that had not changed. So, if the Greek had changed over 1400 years it might be better to use the Latin which was 1100 years old and Latin had not changed. A dead language we say.
As I noted, the variations in the major Greek manuscripts are viirtually of no account. I say “virtually” because they are copyist’s errors – misspellings, an occasional omitted word, nothing of any consequence in the long run.
- I assume Deacon Ed will have something to say about the Greek copies. I would welcome that…we learn a little bit each day. I hope the reasoning of the Priests at Douay is appreciated.:yup:
From CrusaderNY’s Vatican reference( 3rd Paragraph- I think) , "The first English Catholic version of the Bible, the Douay-Rheims (1582-1609/10), and its revision by Bishop Challoner (1750) were based on the Latin Vulgate."
This is why Pope Pius XII told Catholic Bible scholars to examine with great diligence the original languages to see if we could produce a translation that was more faithful to what was originally written.
The Vulgate (I have two different editions) is a singularly great example of bible scholarship because it produced a bible that was accessible to the people – it was in the “vulgar” language which is what the term “vulgate” was derived from. It was a good translation and, considering it was done by one man, simply beyond what one would expect. The level of the translation is, however, uneven (I guess St. Jerome had good days and bad days like the rest of us).
Modern biblical scholarship, however, does bring us closer to the original Greek or Hebrew and, therefore, closer to the mind of the writer. And that, in the final analysis, is where we need to be because the Church tells us that “Scripture means what the writer intended it to mean.” Therefore, we must know the mind of the writer to get the real meaning to Scripture. This includes knowing the history of the time when it was written, the social context in which it was written, the people to whom it was written, the style of writing (poetry is, clearly, not interpreted the same as prose, Gospels are not read as biographies, midrash is not read as if it really happened – although, as my homiletics instructor once said with regard to illustrative stories: it’s true, it just didn’t happen).
Does that help? Was my answer clear enough? Did I actually answer the question you thought you were asking?
Deacon Ed