Effectiveness of Prayers in the State of Grace/Mortal Sin

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Augustine3

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Is there a difference in the effectiveness of prayers if a person is in a state of grace or mortal sin?
 
Think of the tax collector in The Gospel who cried out “Jesus have mercy on me I’ve sinned!” It says God was more likely to hear his prayer.
 
The prayers of one in a state of mortal (or original) sin might be effective as a matter of what is called congruent merit. This is a peculiar theological term meaning rewards that God grants out of His own kindness and mercy to the just and to the unjust alike. I’ve heard Protestants as well refer to a similar concept as prevenient grace.

Theologians differ, however, on whether one can merit the grace of conversion in advance in the unfortunate case that he should fall into mortal sin, in which case all merits are lost until the sins are reconciled. Aquinas says no, but Suarez says yes. In any case, however, we can be fairly assured that the congruent merits granted to one in a state of sin will lead to an end goal of conversion and reconciliation.

My moral theology is a little rusty; perhaps someone with a better background in moral theology can clean my ideas up a little bit?
 
Did you just plagiarize New Advent? 😛 That paragraph sounds familiar.

Why is Aquinas always wrong about everything. He’s supposed to be the Angelic Doctor. He’s constantly getting quoted on things the Church doesn’t teach (anymore).
 
Come at it from the other side:

Does the Lord ever refuse to listen to a sinner?
Does God give up on people?

I think you may know the answer to this.
No prayer goes unheard.
 
Prayers are efficacious based on the charity of the one praying it, and, as always, on God’s mercy (which is a Constant).

According to the Zealous Doctor, the prayer of a sinner wouldn’t be effective if that person isn’t actually praying with the intent of being healed of their sins. Or, the analogy he used: it would be like a person who has offended a prince, going to that prince to ask of a favor, while at the same time having no intention of ceasing to offend that prince. Likewise, the prayers of such a person would not be at all efficacious. Even if their own prayers aren’t efficacious, this doesn’t mean that the Holy Spirit (and the saints, and others) aren’t still working within that person, to bring about contrition within them, so that some day their prayers will become efficacious.

A person in mortal sin that seeks to conform their life to God would have a very efficacious prayer (although the question is: can such a person even be in mortal sin? The heart of perfect contrition is instantly forgiven of all sins).
 
Here are some relevant quotes:

“St. Bernard says that prayer in the mouth of a sinner, although it is without supernatural excellence, since it is not accompanied by charity, yet is useful and efficient in obtaining a release from sin; for, as St. Thomas teaches, the prayer of the sinner is indeed without merit, but it serves to obtain the grace of pardon; for the power of obtaining it is based not upon the worth of him who prays, but upon the divine bounty, and upon the merits and promise of Jesus Christ, who has said, “Every one that asketh receiveth.” The same may be said of the prayers offered to the divine mother.”
  • St. Alphonsus
James 5:16 says that “… the continual prayer of a just man availeth much.”

“For the prayers of one loving soul prevail more with God, both for the living and the dead, than the prayers of a thousand souls who love less.”
– Jesus to St. Gertrude

“The prayer of a humble and loving soul disarms the anger of My Father and draws down an ocean of blessings”
– Jesus to Sr. Josefa Menendez
 
Thanks everyone for your answers, they were helpful 👍

What if a person in a state of mortal sin was praying for the welfare of someone else…would his prayer still be just as efficacious as if he were in a state of grace?

I’m getting the vibe that the state does not matter as much as the disposition of the heart…
 
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