B
bookgirl
Guest
I would love to avoid asking this question but I’m paranoid and won’t have access to confession until tomorrow at the earliest. My husband and I just had a baby four months ago. I then had a Pulmonary Embolism and was put on blood thinners. Although we planned to use NFP anyway, with the danger of Coumadin (blood thinner) to a baby, we decided to abstain until the course of treatment was over (six months). The first four months this was pretty easy, the ones after, not so much. I learned that intended orgasm outside of intended intercourse is not okay on either side (there was some prior confusion about the woman, but that has been cleared up). Now, I had some suspicion that any sexual contact without the intended purpose of intercourse was not exactly completely respectful of intercourse itself. So was it something to clarify and keep reigned in, of course. Was I completely aware that it was of a grave nature? No, not until reading some posts today. I’ve actually had a priest tell me in confession that “married couples have a great many freedoms” or something like that, but he was wrong even in his response there b/c I was asking about female orgasm outside of the context of sex (I think he understood my question). Anyway to wrap this up, my husband and I slipped up as far as the abstinence goes, had intercourse, but stopped before either achieved orgasm. On the clinical side is it still possible I’m pregnant – yes, it is and I know that. Which is why I switched to an injectable form of blood thinner that is safe for the baby (and will probably stay on even if not pregnant to avoid this whole situation from now on). Morally speaking, are we guilty of a mortal sin, keeping in mind what I wrote above? I still plan on confessing this regardless, on changing our actions to reflect our new knowledge, etc.