A
AmbroseSJ
Guest
I’ve given this some thought since reading this thread and it has raised some questions; I thought that Jewish beliefs regarding the Messiah were such that it was considered a great shame for a woman to be barren, as the Messiah was expected to be born in the natural way, and not of a virgin. If I’m not mistaken, there was no “honor” in virginity per se, in 2nd Temple Judaism, as this might preclude the birth of the Messiah.Now what would make for interesting discussion is WHY did the LXX translators move from a mere “maiden” to “virgin”?
It sheds an interesting light on the Blessed Virgin’s perpetual virginity. IOW, did she believe she was removing herself from all possibility of being the mother of the Messiah? If so, it would add an interesting insight into her question to the Archangel Gabriel; “how is this possible?”
I also wonder if the Hebrew word was ambiguous enough to 2nd Temple Jews, that on the surface it suggested a mere maiden, but that the LXX in translating this word into the Greek, were knowledgeable regarding the usage of this word, in the context of Isaiah, to translate the word as “virgin?” There must have been a sufficient cause for them to make such a leap.