English vs. Spanish Psalm Numbers

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This is weird. Using WLP missal with Spanish insert in the pews. The readings are the same from Sunday to Sunday for both languages, including the Psalms; but, the Psalm numbers are always one digit different, e.g. All Saints this Sunday - English Psalm 24; Spanish Salmo 23. This is the case for all Sundays and Holy Days as far as I can see. Why?
 
The English numbering of Psalms follows the popular Protestant numbering of the King James Version taken from the 16th century Masoretic text while the Spanish one follows the traditional Catholic numbering taken from the Douay-Rheims which follows the numbering of the Septuagint. In the Douay-Rheims Bible, Psalm 23 is the Psalm used for the Mass.
 
The English numbering of Psalms follows the popular Protestant numbering of the King James Version taken from the 16th century Masoretic text while the Spanish one follows the traditional Catholic numbering taken from the Douay-Rheims which follows the numbering of the Septuagint. In the Douay-Rheims Bible, Psalm 23 is the Psalm used for the Mass.
Thank you. I guess my confusion lies in the fact that the Psalm is the same but numbered differently. Why do “they” do odd things like this? So, I guess the English Psalm 1 is the Spanish Psalm 0? LOL!
 
The offset in numbering shifts throughout the Psalter as the Hebrew and Greek texts combine or separate psalms at different points. A little more here from Jimmy Akin, including the chart he borrowed from Wikipedia.
 
Thank you. I guess my confusion lies in the fact that the Psalm is the same but numbered differently. Why do “they” do odd things like this? So, I guess the English Psalm 1 is the Spanish Psalm 0? LOL!
No, the divergence begins at Psalm 9-10. In the Hebrew, it splits, while in the Greek and Vulgate, it continues as a single Psalm. This then causes the Greek/Latin to trail by 1.

Then it syncs up at Psalm 113, but in the Hebrew, that splits off into 114 and 115. Then 114-115 in the Greek becomes 116 in the Hebrew.

They sync up again at 146-147, which becomes Psalm 147 in the Hebrew. The last three are therefore synced up through 150.
 
No, the divergence begins at Psalm 9-10. In the Hebrew, it splits, while in the Greek and Vulgate, it continues as a single Psalm. This then causes the Greek/Latin to trail by 1.

Then it syncs up at Psalm 113, but in the Hebrew, that splits off into 114 and 115. Then 114-115 in the Greek becomes 116 in the Hebrew.

They sync up again at 146-147, which becomes Psalm 147 in the Hebrew. The last three are therefore synced up through 150.
Thank you for your explicit explanation. Very much appreciated.
 
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