R
reggieM
Guest
If’ it’s not heretical, then it is orthodox teaching.But once again…your counterpoint is based upon several presuppositions.
- I do not agree with it but I never said it was heretical. In fact, I would be surprised if hardly anyone would view it as such.
As often mentioned, the word “Trinity” is not used in the Bible. But through the Councils of the Church we know it is an orthodox theological formulation - based on Scripture and the teaching of Christ as given to the apostles.
- It is non-scriptural. It, however, might not be anti-scriptural. In other words, it does not directly say nor do I think it infers it. I believe even those who support it would take it to the level of inference only.
When we say “new teachings” this can mean several things. As above, with definitions on the Trinity. They were “new” because they hadn’t been defined that way before. But they were not “new” in the sense that someone made them up outside of the apostolic tradition. Of course, new theological terminology has entered into the life of the Church over the centuries. This has helped to explain doctrine to new generations in new social and cultural climates.
- I do not believe that all new teachings were condemned by the Catholic Church. That seems to be the presupposition you are operating under.
But these new expressions have to be evaluated against the Scripture and tradition. If they’re consistent and true expressions - then they’re approved. If not, then they are condemned. That’s how the Councils have always worked – from the first Council of Jerusalem presided over by the apostles themselves. They had to determine “new” teachings, which were applications of what they learned directly from Jesus.
If your point is that we don’t have absolute proof, then that is correct. But it’s not correct to say that we don’t have any evidence. Again, especially during the 4th century, doctrines were analyzed and debated carefully. A prominent voice like the Bishop of Hippo would receive a lot of attention. Other Church leaders were excommunicated for the slightest violation of orthodox teaching at the time.
- Nothing in your statement still deals with the fact that you cannot prove that something existed earlier without some form of evidence it did. How people react to something after it appears does not prove or disprove when it started. That position is untenable.
So, that is evidence that makes the claim plausible.
Additionally, there may be other references to this terminology but I haven’t researched it carefully enough to know.