C
Cradle
Guest
If a woman does not ovulate because of an endocrine disorder and would therefore require drugs/medication in order to conceive (I don’t mean IVF, just ovulation-inducing drugs or some similar treatment that they give), would it be wrong for the couple to prevent pregnancy by not taking this treatment, and so use not receiving the treatment as a form of birth control, a kind of reverse NFP? Also, what if this situation is pre-planned? As in, the couple knows ahead of time, like, before marriage, and they plan to do the above in order to delay children once married? Would that be wrong also, would it make it wrong? Basically, is taking advantage of infertility for a time (not indefinitely, of course) a sinful form of birth control / child spacing, and furthermore how does pre-meditation affect the morals of the issue? Thanks! Hopefully this thread will get an answer (I tend to be a thread-killer…
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