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I always see John 35-58 given as the standard Catholic explanation for transubstantiation of bread/wine into body/blood.
However, the disciples had dificulty with this explanation … so Christ in 60-64 verses gave them a fuller, private explanation … which appears to have given a different meaning to the standard Church Universal teaching.
How does the Church’s dogma reconcile these final 5 verses in its full explanation ?
However, the disciples had dificulty with this explanation … so Christ in 60-64 verses gave them a fuller, private explanation … which appears to have given a different meaning to the standard Church Universal teaching.
How does the Church’s dogma reconcile these final 5 verses in its full explanation ?