H
His_Servant_1
Guest
Why do some parishes offer the Eucharist in both forms but not others.
Well, I guess I could say practice makes perfect, as we seem to manage it alamost all of the time.Another good one is that the norms state if it is offered, it must be offered to everyone, yet usually no matter how much wine is consecrated, it is gone before everyone has a chance to receive, which means the norm is constantly violated.
Or his own personal preference.The priest is the one who makes this decisions based on the needs of his parish.
I have been the last one in line, and was offered a cup that was half-full.yet usually no matter how much wine is consecrated, it is gone before everyone has a chance to receive, which means the norm is constantly violated.
The DR says:In regards to this question, and if I am “hijacking” this thread please moderators remove my post.
When Jesus instituted Holy Communion at the Last Supper, He did so in two separate actions. Jesus held up the bread and said this is “MY Body” and then after supper, held up a cup and said “Drink, This is My Blood”. If Jesus established Holy Communion under both forms, why does some parishes-dioceses-etc, not offer both? I know that Jesus is fully present under both forms, but this question has nagged at me a bit, maybe because I am a recent convert with much to learn yet.
CatholigVer. 27. Drink ye all of this. This was spoken to the twelve apostles; who were the all then present; and they all drank of it, says St. Mark (14, 23). But it no ways follows from these words spoken to the apostles, that all the faithful are here comanded to drink of the chalice: any more than that all the faithful are comanded to consecrate, offer and administer this sacrament; because Christ upon this same occasion and at the same time bid the apostles do so, in these words (Luke, 22, 19), Do this for a commemoration of me.
Yes, I think you were correct. In many parishes, if communion is offered under both species, the cup runs out before the people are finished receiving. But I have also been in parishes where many parishioners receive the host only, bypassing the chalice, leaving a large quantity, which MUST be consumed by the priest or EMHC’s. The thing is, consecrated hosts can be stored in the tabernacle. The precious blood cannot. It must be consumed.I have been the last one in line, and was offered a cup that was half-full.
I had read on EWTN that if you are the last person to receive from the cup, it is considered “polite” to finish the cup to minimize the amount of wine that the Communion Distributors would have to consume if there was Precious Blood left over, so I consumed the remaining Precious Blood.
The EMHC noted that I consumed all of the Precious Blood in the cup and whispered a hearty “Thank you.”
This only happened to me once, and I am curious if this was correct.
Not required. Not required. Not required. It did not occur for hundreds of years. We weren’t wrong then and we’re not wrong now. One species is completely sufficient.However, to receive Him under both is a fuller sign. So sayeth the Church.
Being a downtown parish, we have more than our fair share of recovering alcoholics, so most of the time, we receive under the form of bread only.Why do some parishes offer the Eucharist in both forms but not others.
What otjm posts is accurate. The Church does say that receiving under both kinds is a fuller sign.Not required. Not required. Not required. It did not occur for hundreds of years. We weren’t wrong then and we’re not wrong now. One species is completely sufficient.
As an EM who is also pregnantI have been the last one in line, and was offered a cup that was half-full.
I had read on EWTN that if you are the last person to receive from the cup, it is considered “polite” to finish the cup to minimize the amount of wine that the Communion Distributors would have to consume if there was Precious Blood left over, so I consumed the remaining Precious Blood.
The EMHC noted that I consumed all of the Precious Blood in the cup and whispered a hearty “Thank you.”
This only happened to me once, and I am curious if this was correct.
I think that what has happened is that the Church issued a directive that while theologically sound, is somewhat difficult for the average layperson to grasp. While most priests and other religious can probably easily understand the differing concepts at work the average person probably cannot. To hear the words a fuller sign, could and does seem to indicate that those receiving under one species only are not receiving the full benefits.What otjm posts is accurate. The Church does say that receiving under both kinds is a fuller sign.
What you post is also accurate. It is not required that one receive under both kinds to receive the body, blood, soul, and divinity of Jesus.
I dare say that the Church has generated something of a paradox here.
Did I say required? Did I use the word or even hint at it?Not required. Not required. Not required. It did not occur for hundreds of years. We weren’t wrong then and we’re not wrong now. One species is completely sufficient.
Sacraments are outward signs instituted by Christ to confer grace, so on its face it would seem a fuller sign is better. But when it comes to graces received, we know that a full host does not contain more of Christ (and thus more grace) than the smallest particle, so there are no more graces objectively received. Still, I think the case could be made (and this coming from someone who doesn’t receive from the cup and doesn’t at all like the way this distribution currently takes place) that communion under both species, as a fuller sign, enables the recipient to more fully appropriate or activate the graces received. One can, after all, receive sacramentally but not spiritually (and vice versa), so there is more at work than the simple objective reception of Christ.But what does it *really *mean when one says it is a “fuller sign”? Are there any extra graces conveyed?