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tee_eff_em
Guest
The Latin Rite legislates that bread intended to be used for the Eucharist be unleavened. The Eastern Rites do not (or at least, not all of them do so?). So, in the Latin Rite, the bread needs be unleavened as a matter (heh) of *obedience *and to do otherwise is illicit.Why does the eucharist need to be unleavened?
(I do not know that there is definitive teaching on whether it would be invalid, however)
tee