C
Church_Militant
Guest
As I pointed out, the discussion in question took place in Aramaic and in fact, there is evidence that Matthew’s Gospel was originally written in Aramaic and then translated later on into Greek. I suggest this article Peter the RockAnyway…
The greek language is a very precise language, and the author of the book, here being Matthew, would have been aware of what Jesus was meaning, I would think, thus his reasons for choosing to use the words Petros and Petras. Am I mistaken in thinking this? If he meant to use rock for both peter and the next statement Jesus used, would not he have used Petras for both? I don’t see how you refuted my point.
The problem here is that you cannot support this (Sola Scriptura) position from the Bible. It is flawed from the outset by the fact that nowhere in the NT does Our Lord commission it’s writing and in fact , He did not establish a book or a collection of them, but a church. (Back to Mt 16:18 again.) There are many threads on this topic right now, perhaps I’ll catch you there, meanwhile I suggest you listen to this FREE MP3 Bible study on it.And, well, it isn’t just a book. That book you hold is the living Word of God. It was, and is, God’s chosen method of conveying Himself to us. And we’re not alone in this, we’re not given this gift of the Word of God and then told to fend for ourselves. Just as Peter did not realize that Jesus was the Christ by his own superior knowledge, it was revealed to him by the Father in heaven, not by flesh and blood, just as he knew, so do we know and are able to discern the bible, with the aid of the helper, sent by Christ, the Holy Spirit.
No Catholic would contest this. This is a straw man argument.The Holy Spirit, which is in every believer, not the Pope alone, not the Cardinals, every believer.
So then 1st Timothy 3:15 does not mean what it says?Yes, there is much debate over issues on the protestant end of this, and yes, it would be much easier if we had someone to tell us what everything meant, but that is not how God made it.
A grave misunderstanding of Papal infallibity & a typical argument. See this article for a better understanding.He did not make someone infallible, which, if I read correctly on this very forum, the Pope has only spoken infallibly twice in 2,000 years, concering the Immaculate Conception and Perpetual Virginity of Mary, either way, no man is infallible.
No… actually, you do not. You understand the erroneous teachings that you have been exposed to, (are you perhaps a student of MacArthur’s…he has the same problem.) not Catholic belief.And I understand the heirarchal structure of the Catholic Church, it is the very thing I disagree with. After Jesus gave up the ghost on the cross, the veil of the temple was tore from top to bottom. This veil seperated the holiest of holies from the outside world. Only one priest was allowed to enter, and then only once a year. If anyone else was to even look into the holiest of holies, the dwelling place of God Himself, the man would instantly die, but the moment Jesus died, the veil ripped completely…
I don’t think that you can supply Biblical evidence of this claim. Our Lord preached against the misuse of same, not the priesthood.… which Christ preached against on numerous occasions, and which was a main reason for the Jewish leaders wanting to kill Him, because His preaching was going to take away their power.
A return to the rhetorical propaganda without any substance, as well as perjorative commentary.The Catholic Church has reinstated this levitical priesthood, and said that you must go through a priest to have your sins properly confessed. This gave the RCC much power during the middle ages, and still allows it to flex an admirable amount of power in certain countries outside the US, especially countries with weak governments.
Catholicism does not “reinstate this levitical priesthood”. This shows more gross misunderstanding of Catholic belief.
As for confession: John 20 21-23 makes it quite plain that the ministry of reconcilliation was given to the apostles to be handed down through the church. James 5:16 confirms this again as does 1st John 1:9.
Your bolded remarks are pure rhetoric without any truth to them.
Again…rhetorical misrepresentation. There may be cultures that are blessed with more fervor than many American Catholics, even as there are cultures where the faithful n-Cs might shame their American brethren, but it is still the same faith in both cases.That is why you find a watered down Catholicism in the United States, which I assume is where most of you live, and you find a more hardcore, orthodox, and in my eyes -true form,- of Catholicism in these other countries.
Pax tecum,