R
rad314
Guest
(It might not sound so bad if you think ‘humans with mortal souls’ instead of ‘huma’. But, anyway . . .)But this only goes to highlight my difficulty with the whole “huma”/“human” distinction, I think. If the jump in consciousness between “huma” and “human” is such a quantum leap, how on earth can we fathom the notion that the second generation of “humans” (i.e., Adam and Eve’s kids) mated with “huma” to produce the human race? I mean, wouldn’t that be like raping or – I don’t know which is worse – marrying animals just to propogate the race?
This ties in nicely with something that occurred to me a few hours ago. The same reasoning applies to your problems with rape/bestiality.
Returning briefly, once more, to MarcoPolo’s post:
I think we’ve assumed that in order to propose an acceptable explanation, it’s necessary to avoid the element of incest, but why is that? Remember that we’re talking about humanity after the Fall. It wasn’t God’s plan that Adam and Eve would sin. Was it God’s plan that the human race would propagate via incest? Of course not. There’s nothing to be gained by trying to ignore it. Look at Jesus’ genealogy in Matthew’s Gospel; dig into it a little and you’ll find some real embarrassments there, too.Adam and Eve only mate with each other and have human children with souls. In order to avoid incest the children need to find mates outside their immediate family . . .