Sin came through one man, Adam. Through his transgression, sin and death entered the universe.
However we are also open to hold a view that after “God Controlled” evolution, Man enetered the earth and God gave him an immortal soul, and thats when the fall happened.
How can we reconcile the apparent differences in these two ideas?
How can evolution (which requires death!) come before the first man, who apparently was the cause of death through his iniquity?
I appreciate any help on this issue.
There are problems no matter which way one views the biblical texts.
That “death” has various meanings is testified by Jesus himself who says that unless a seed fall into the ground and die, it reamins but a single seed.
The quote from St. Paul, though, I think refers not to the universe exactly – but if I remember right, it should be cosmos. The difference being along the line that cosmos has to do with an orderly society or furnished household whereas universe is inclusive of all creation whatsoever. Cosmopolitan for example is usually thought of as a city, and the orderly sophistication thereof. The use of cosmos and universe as synonomous may be more of an English culture issue rather than a scripture issue depending on the context.
So St. Paul may simply referring to how death entered the order of man who was not destined to die but to live forever among a changable creation. Fertility itself (self donation) is a form of death – and the Genesis text implies that man (as opposed to angels) was always intended to reproduce.
In the Genesis text (Greek) the “death” of Adam is not singular but an awkward phrase “die to death”. To death being dative (eg: the “to” in english) can also act as some kind of action description. Dying death, not transformational death like a seed, but something else. The scripture writers also had a very strong tendency to use repetitions of words in verbal and noun form for an apparently poetic style.
Much of the literature does so macroscopicly, using redundant ideas in successive sentences, this could be a memorization device (originally the texts were oral) and at the same time, it could also be a poetic device (not in the sense of rhyming sound, but by rhyming ideas). When a verb and noun are used together, both kinds of rhyming occurs – poetic sound, and redundant idea.
Your question is quite interesting, and as a pointer –
I would study the passage in Romans, and then very carefully compare St. Paul’s vocabulary against the way it is used elsewhere especially in scripture. This is an area I am slowly probing myself. Many common interpretations I have heard – fall short when reading original or period texts and comparing how people thought about things as opposed to the way we popularly think they thought. Inconsistencies show up which are clues that some of today’s ideas are probably partially incorrect also.
People were quite intelligent at the time, even if they were working with a different set of assumptions and a vocabulary which emphasized different things than ours does today.